CBSE Class 9 Science NSO Olympiad MCQs with Answers Set J

Logical Reasoning

Question. Select the figure from the options in which the given figure is exactly embedded as one of its parts.

Answer : B

Question. If A + B means A is the brother of B, A × B means A is the son of B and A ÷ B means B is the daughter of A, then which of the following means M is the maternal uncle of N?
A. M + O × N
B. M × O + N + P
C. M + O ÷ N
D. None of these
Answer : D

Question. Three different positions of a dice are shown here. Find the number of the dots on the face opposite to the face having two dots.

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer : C

Question. Six girls are sitting in a circle facing the centre. They are : P, Q, R, S, T and V. T is not between Q and S but some other one. P is next to the left of V. R is 4th to the right of P.
Which of the following statements is not true?
A. V is third to the right of R.
B. T is just next to the right of V.
C. R is second to the left of T.
D. P is second to the right of R.
Answer : C

Question. How many triangles are there in the given figure?

A. 38
B. 35
C. 40
D. None of these
Answer : D

Question. In the given Venn diagram, Police Officer represents Circle, Male represents Triangle , Poet represents Square and Married represents Rectangle.
The area representing unmarried police officers who are female poets is _______.

A. 8
B. 9
C. 2
D. 4
Answer : A

Question. The question consists of a set of three figures X, Y and Z showing a sequence of folding of a piece of paper. Fig. (Z) shows the manner in which the folded paper has been cut. Select the figure from the options which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of fig. (Z).

Answer : B

Question. A number arrangement machine, when given an input line of numbers, rearranges them in a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and the steps of rearrangement.
Input : 39 121 48 18 76 112 14 45 63 96
Step I : 14 39 121 48 18 76 112 45 63 96
Step II : 14 39 48 18 76 112 45 63 96 121
Step III : 14 18 39 48 76 112 45 63 96 121
Step IV : 14 18 39 48 76 45 63 96 112 121
Step V : 14 18 39 45 48 76 63 96 112 121
Step VI : 14 18 39 45 48 63 76 96 112 121
And step VI is the last step of this input.
For the given below input, how many steps will be required to get the last step?
Input : 101 85 66 49 73 39 142 25 115 74
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Answer : D

Question. Which of the following options satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as in the given figure?

Answer : B

Question. In the given question, two rows of numbers are given.
The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the question below the rows of numbers is to be answered. The operations on numbers progress from left to right.
Rules :
(i) If an odd number is followed by another composite odd number, they are to be added.
(ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number, they are to be added.
(iii) If an even number is followed by a number which is the perfect square, the even number is to be subtracted from the perfect square.
(iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to be divided by the second number.
(v) If an odd number is followed by an even number, the second one is to be subtracted from the first number.
                                 85 17 35
                                16 19  r
If ‘r’ is the resultant of the first row, then what will be the resultant of the second row?
A. 175
B. –5
C. 75
D. 21 
Answer : B

Science

Question. A force is applied to a cart moving along a horizontal track in the positive x direction. If the cart speeds up and then slows down, then which one of the following graphs best shows the variation of the force with time for the cart? Assume that friction is negligible.

Answer : C

Question. A hot air balloon loaded with sandbags has a total mass of M. It is descending with a downward acceleration of g/2, where g is the acceleration of free fall. How much sand must be released from the sandbags in order that hot air balloon ascends with the same acceleration?
A. M / 2
B. M / 3
C. 2 M / 3
D. 3 M / 4
Answer : C

Question. A particle of mass m moving along a straight line experiences force F which varies with the distance travelled as shown in the graph. If the velocity of the

Answer : A

Question. A jar is filled with two non-mixing liquids 1 and 2 having densities r₁ and r₂ respectively. A solid ball, made of a material of density r₃, is dropped in the jar. It comes to equilibrium in the position shown in the figure. Which of the following is true for r₁, r₂ and r₃?

A. r₁ < r₃ < r₂
B. r₃ < r₁ < r₂
C. r₁ > r₃ > r₂
D. r₁ < r₂ < r₃
Answer : A

Question. The figure shows four arrangements of three particles of equal masses. (D = 2d) Select the correct option regarding the magnitude of the net gravitational force on the particle labelled m.

A. (i) > (iii) = (iv) > (ii)
B. (i) = (iii) > (ii) > (iv)
C. (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
D. (iv) < (iii) < (ii) = (i)
Answer : A

Question. An engine is approaching a hill at constant speed. When it is at a distance of 0.9 km, it blows a whistle, whose echo is heard by the driver after 5 s. If the speed of sound is 340 m s^–1, then find the speed of the engine.
A. 20 m s^–1
B. 30 m s^–1
C. 15 m s^–1
D. 10 m s^–1
Answer : A

Question. A sound wave travelling in a medium is represented as shown in the figure.

If vibrating source of sound makes 360 oscillations in 2 minutes, then the amplitude, wavelength and frequency of the sound wave are respectively (Take velocity of sound as 342 m s^–1.)
A. 1 m, 114 m and 3 Hz
B. 2 m, 3 m and 14 Hz
C. 1 m, 5 m and 20 Hz
D. 1 m, 100 m and 10 Hz
Answer : A

Question. A boy travels along a circular path of radius r m. If the angle traced by the boy is π/3 radians, then his linear displacement is
A. r 2 m
B. r√m
C. 2√r m
D. (πr/3)m
Answer : B

Question. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1 : The planet Saturn could float if put in water.
Statement 2 : Density of water is more than that of effective density of Saturn.
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
D. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.
Answer : A

Question. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
I. When a batsman hits a cricket ball with his bat, the force applied by the batsman is muscular force.
II. In an electric bell, the hammer strikes the gong due to electrostatic force.
III. During dry weather, hair tend to attract the comb while combing and it is due to magnetic force of attraction.
IV. Walking on ice is difficult because of lack of frictional force.
A. I and II only
B. I and IV only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and IV only
Answer : C

Question. A negatively charged rod is held close to one side of a metal ball and the other side is earthed. Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the charge distribution?

Answer : B

Question. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.
    Column I                           Column II
P. String vibration              (i) Tabla
Q. Membrane vibration      (ii) Bicycle bell
R. Vibration of air             (iii) Sitar
S. Vibration of plate          (iv) Shehnai
A. P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(ii)
B. P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(i)
C. P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(i)
D. P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(iii)
Answer : A

Question. Four different experiments were conducted in the following ways :
I. 3 g of carbon was burnt in 8 g of oxygen to give 11 g of CO₂.
II. 1.2 g of carbon was burnt in air to give 4.2 g of CO₂.
III. 4.5 g of carbon was burnt in enough air to give 11 g of CO₂.
IV. 4 g of carbon was burnt in oxygen to form 30.3 g of CO₂. Law of constant proportions is illustrated in experiment(s)
A. I and III only
B. II and III only
C. IV only
D. I only.
Answer : D

Question. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1 : Rayon is called a regenerated fibre.
Statement 2 : Rayon is stronger and easier to dye in a variety of colours.
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
C. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Answer : B

Question. Following statements are given by four students Ajeet, Parth, Arunav and Vani :
Ajeet : Forces of attraction between the particles increase in the order : Nitrogen < Water < Sugar.
Parth : Boiling water is hotter than steam because of latent heat of vaporisation.
Arunav : The effect of increasing pressure is more important as compared to that of decreasing temperature in liquefaction of gas.
Vani : Ice at 273 K is more effective in cooling than water at 273 K.
The correct statement(s) is/are given by
A. Parth and Arunav only
B. Ajeet only
C. Ajeet and Vani only
D. Parth and Vani only.
Answer : C

Question. Protein extract from a food sample was digested into amino acids and its components were separated by paper chromatography. The chromatogram obtained is shown as :

Which of the labelled components (P1–P5) are found in the protein extract?
A. P2 and P3
B. P3 and P4
C. P1 and P2
D. P1 and P3
Answer : D

Question. Tanvi was given three unknown metals P, Q and R.
She performed the following experiments to check their reactivity.

If reactions occurred only in beakers 3 and 4, then which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. Metal R could be aluminium.
B. Metal P could be zinc.
C. Metal Q could be calcium.
D. The correct order of reactivity is Q < P < R < Mg.
Answer : C

Question. Categorise the given atoms into groups of isobars and isotopes.

Isobars                               Isotopes
A. X, V, Q and T, W, Y        U, Y, Z
B. Y, Z                                U, V and X, Z
C. U, Y                               X, V, Z and T, W
D. U, Y, Z                           X, V, Q and T, W, Y
Answer : D

Question. A brief information about four substances P, Q, R and S is given.
P : A dark coloured, viscous, strong smelling liquid which is commercially very important
Q : An almost pure form of carbon which is used in the manufacture of steel and in the extraction of many metals
R : Used in place of coal tar for metalling the roads
S : Used in the manufacture of detergents, fibres, polythene and other man-made plastics Identify P, Q, R and S.
Answer : A

Question. Ankita tested the solubility of four different substances (I-IV) at different temperatures and collected the data as given in the table

Fill in the blanks by selecting the correct option.
(x) of substance III would be needed to produce a saturated solution of it in 50 grams of water at 40°C.
(y) has the highest solubility at 20°C while (z) has the least solubility at 10°C.
        x        y     z
A. 21 g      I      IV
B. 42 g      IV    I
C. 32.5 g   II     III
D. 21 g     IV     I
Answer : D

Question. Arrange the given substances in decreasing order of mass in grams.
P - One atom of silver
Q - Two gram atoms of nitrogen
R - One mole of calcium
S - Two grams of sodium
(At. masses : Ag = 108 u, N = 14 u, Ca = 40 u, Na = 23 u)
A. R > Q > S > P
B. Q > S > P > R
C. P > Q > R > S
D. S > R > Q > P
Answer : A

Question. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.
             Column I                            Column II
(Zones of candle flame)          (Characteristics)
P. Dark zone                              (i) Complete combustion
Q. Luminous zone                     (ii) No combustion
R. Blue zone                             (iii) Incomplete combustion
S. Non-luminous zone              (iv) Where CO burns
A. P - (ii), Q - (i), R - (iii), S - (iv)
B. P - (ii), Q - (iii), R - (iv), S - (i)
C. P - (iii), Q - (ii), R - (i), S - (iv)
D. P - (iv), Q - (iii), R - (ii), S - (i)
Answer : B

Question. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Lysosomes play an important role at the time of fertilisation.
B. 80 S-ribosome consists of a large 50 S subunit and small 30 S subunit.
C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum mainly consists of cisternae whereas rough endoplasmic reticulum mainly consists of tubules and vesicles.
D. All of these
Answer : A

Question. Refer to the given structure of a type of plant tissue. Identify its components X, Y and Z and select the correct statement regarding them.

A. X is a non-living thin-walled cell that helps in storage of food.
B. Y is devoid of nucleus but mitochondria, plastids and endoplasmic reticulum are present in abundance in it.
C. Z is connected to X with the help of plasmodesmata.
D. Both B and C
Answer : D

Question. Select the option which correctly identifies P - T.

Answer : B

Question. Which of the following statements is correct regarding chronic diseases?
A. They last for a long time, may be as much as a life time.
B. A person suffering from a chronic disease always recovers completely after treatment.
C. They do not cause long term bad effects on human health.
D. These include Alzheimer’s disease, cholera, arthritis, cancer, etc
Answer : A

Question. The given table represents differences between bryophytes and pteridophytes. Identify the correct ones

A. I and II only
B. II and IV only
C. I, II and IV only
D. II, IV and V only
Answer : D

Question. Some water falling on ground, forms an extremely thin, tightly held film around the soil particles called ________ while some water moves down upto the water table and is called ________.
Select the option that correctly fills the blanks in the above statement.
A. Gravitational water, capillary water
B. Hygroscopic water, surface runoff
C. Hygroscopic water, gravitational water
D. Capillary water, surface runoff
Answer : C

Question. Read the given statements.
(i) Bee wax obtained from beehive is deposition of excretory products of honeybee.
(ii) Fish culture is sometimes done in combination with rice crop so that fish are grown in the water accumulated in the paddy field.
(iii) Fish feed in different zones of pond to make most efficient use of available food.
(iv) Sahiwal and Murrah are exotic breeds used extensively in cattle farming.
(v) Intercropping is growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field in a definite pattern.
Which of the given statements are incorrect?
A. (i), (ii) and (iii) only
B. (ii) and (iv) only
C. (i) and (iv) only
D. (i), (iv) and (v) only
Answer : C

Question. Refer to the given flow chart and select the correct option regarding it.

A. P could be anthrax whereas Q could be plague.
B. Q could be plague whereas R could be foot and mouth disease.
C. P could be tuberculosis whereas R could be plague
D. P could be foot and mouth disease, Q could be anthrax whereas R could be pullorum.
Answer : D

Question. Refer to the given set of secondary sexual characteristics.
I. Enlargement of breasts
II. Development of Adam’s apple
III. Deepening of voice
IV. Growth of pubic hair
V. Widening of pelvis
How many of these are related to females only?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 5
Answer : C

Question. Select the incorrectly matched pair.
A. Mitochondria – Production of energy
B. Vacuole – Storage of useful minerals
C. Centrosome – Formation of spindle
D. Peroxisomes – Formation of lysosomes
Answer : D

Question. Match column I with column II and column III and select the correct option from the given codes.

A. (i)-S, e; (ii)-P, b; (iii)-T, a; (iv)-R, c; (v)-Q, d
B. (i)-P, a; (ii)-R, e; (iii)-Q, b; (iv)-S, d; (v)-T, c
C. (i)-Q, b; (ii)-R, a; (iii)-P, c; (iv)-T, e; (v)-S, d
D. (i)-P, b; (ii)-S, d; (iii)-Q, c; (iv)-T, e; (v)-R, a
Answer : A

Question. Read the given statements and select the option that correctly fill the blanks in any two of them.
(a) Entamoeba histolytica causes ____(i)____ and Entamoeba gingivalis causes ____(ii)____.
(b) ____(i)____ bacteria can fix atmospheric nitrogen into nitrates.
(c) ____(i)____ and ____(ii)____ are common bacteria that cause denitrification.
A. (a)-(i) Amoebiasis,   (ii) Food poisoning
    (c)-(i) Rhizobium,     (ii) Thiobacillus
B. (b)-(i) Rhizobium,    (c)-(i) Thiobacillus,
                                    (ii) Pseudomonas
C. (a)-(i) Amoebiasis,  (ii) Pyorrhoea
(b)-(i) Thiobacillus,
D. (a)-(i) Pyorrhoea,    (ii) Amoebiasis
(c)-(i) Nitrosomonas,   (ii) Pseudomonas
Answer : B

Question. Select the incorrect statement.
A. Biopesticides kill specific insect pests without affecting useful insects in the crop field.
B. Malathion is a common insecticide.
C. MCPA is used to control rodents.
D. Atrazine is a common herbicide
Answer : C

ACHIEVERS SECTION

Question. Read the given passage and fill in the blanks by selecting an appropriate option.
The velocity-time graphs of a car and a scooter are shown in the figure.

The difference between the distance travelled by the car and the scooter in first 15 s is (i) and the time at which the car will catch up with the scooter is (ii) . At time t = 10 s, acceleration of car is (iii) while velocity of scooter is (iv) .
         (i)          (ii)           (iii)           (iv)
A. 112.5 m   15 s       1 m s^–2     0 m s^–1
B. 337.5 m   10 s       2 m s^–2    30 m s^–1
C. 112.5 m   22.5 s    3 m s^–2    30 m s^–1
D. 225.5 m   25 s       3 m s^–2    15 m s^–1
Answer : C

Question. A 1 kg mass is projected down a rough circular track (radius = 2 m) placed in vertical plane as shown. The speed of the mass at point P is 3 m/s and at point Q, it is 6 m/s. How much work is done on the mass between points P and Q by the force of friction? (Take g = 10 m/s²)

A. –7.5 J
B. –8.5 J
C. –6.5 J
D. –24 J
Answer : C

Question. Identify the types of epithelial tissue from the given statements and select the correct option regarding them.
I. L forms delicate lining of blood vessels.
II. M is found in salivary and sweat glands.
III. N forms lining of stomach and gall bladder.
IV. O lines Fallopian tubes and nephrons of kidney.
A. L could be cuboidal epithelium whereas M could be columnar epithelium.
B. M could be cuboidal epithelium whereas N could be columnar epithelium.
C. N could be squamous epithelium whereas O could be cuboidal epithelium.
D. L could be columnar epithelium whereas O could be ciliated epithelium.
Answer : B

Question. Refer to the given dichotomous key and select the incorrect option regarding it.
I. (a) Disease is present since birth. - P
(b) Disease develops after birth. - Go to II
II. (a) It is a communicable disease. - Go to III
(b) It is a non-communicable disease. -Go to IV
III. (a) It spreads through direct contact. - Q
(b) It spreads through vector. - R
IV. (a) It occurs due to deficiency of nutrients. - S
(b) It occurs due to deficiency of a hormone. - T
A. P could be cleft palate, R could be elephantiasis and T could be goitre.
B. Q could be rhinitis, R could be sleeping sickness and S could be night blindness.
C. P could be Down’s syndrome, Q could be measles and R could be malaria.
D. Q could be kala-azar, R could be haemophilia and S could be cretinism.
Answer : D

Question. The given table shows the melting and boiling points of four substances W, X, Y and Z.

Now, refer to the given diagram and read the given statements carefully.
I. Substance Z will exist
in liquid form at room temperature.
II. Substance W will undergo change (ii) at 65°C.
III. At –252°C, substance X will undergo change (iv).
IV. At 90°C, substance Y will undergo change (iii).
The incorrect statement(s) is/are
A. I and III only
B. II and IV only
C. IV only
D. I, II and III only
Answer : D