CBSE Class 9 Science NSO Olympiad MCQs with Answers Set A

Refer to CBSE Class 9 Science NSO Olympiad MCQs with Answers Set A provided below available for download in Pdf. The MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with answers are aligned as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern suggested by CBSE, NCERT and KVS. Multiple Choice Questions for NSO Olympiad are an important part of exams for Class 9 Science and if practiced properly can help you to improve your understanding and get higher marks. Refer to more Chapter-wise MCQs for CBSE Class 9 Science and also download more latest study material for all subjects

MCQ for Class 9 Science NSO Olympiad

Class 9 Science students should refer to the following multiple-choice questions with answers for NSO Olympiad in Class 9.

NSO Olympiad MCQ Questions Class 9 Science with Answers

Logical Reasoning

Question. Find the missing term in the given series. 
19200, 1920, 240, 40, 10, ?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 0
D. 10
Answer : B

Question. Select a figure from the options which will continue the same series as established by the four problem figures.

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Answer : B

Question. Six persons Aman, Beenu, Charu, Disha, Esha and Giya took up a job with an organization in a week from Monday to Saturday. Each of them joined for different posts on different days. The posts were of—clerk, officer, technician, manager, supervisor and sales executive, though not necessarily in the same order.
Giya joined as a manager on the first day. Beenu joined as a supervisor but neither on Wednesday nor Friday. Disha joined as a technician on Thursday.
Charu joined on Wednesday. Esha joined as a clerk on Tuesday. Aman joined as a sales executive.
Which of the following is correctly matched regarding the posts and day of joining?
A. Manager-Tuesday
B. Officer-Wednesday
C. Clerk-Thursday
D. Technician-Monday
Answer : B

Question. Find the missing character, if the given matrix follows a certain rule, row-wise or column-wise.

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A. V
B. W
C. X
D. Y
Answer : B

Question. If Saturday falls on fourth day after today which is 6th January, then on what day did 1st December of the previous year fall?
A. Sunday
B. Wednesday
C. Tuesday
D. Monday
Answer : D

Question. Select a figure from the options, which would replace the (?) to complete the pattern in Figure (X).

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Answer : C

Question. Find the mirror image of Fig. (X), if the mirror is placed vertically to the left.

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Answer : D

Question. Garima and Saurabh are children of Mr. Jindal. Garima marries Amit Goel and Sahil, Sameer and Sanchit are born to them. Sahil is married to the eldest daughter of Mr. and Mrs. Mittal.
Kaya is younger to Piya but older than Riya who are the daughters of Mr. and Mrs. Mittal. Latika is Sahil’s daughter.
How is Saurabh related to Sanchit?
A. Brother-in-law
B. Uncle
C. Maternal uncle
D. Brother
Answer : C

Question. In the sequence given below, in some cases the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit ‘3’ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 3 and sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit ‘5’ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 5. How many such 3’s and 5’s are there altogether?
2 5 4 3 6 7 5 2 8 3 9 7 5 4 3 4 6 5 2 6 3 5 8 3 5 2 4 6 3 7 5 8 3 5 2 6
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 4
Answer : D

Question. In a certain code, the word DEAL is coded as 4 – 5 – 1 – 12. Following the same rule of coding, what should be the code for the word LADY?
A. 12 – 4 – 1 – 25
B. 12 – 1 – 4 – 25
C. 10 – 1 – 4 – 23
D. 12 – 1 – 4 – 22
Answer : B

Question. Group the given figures into three classes, using each figure only once.

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A. 1, 4, 9; 2, 3, 8; 5, 6, 7
B. 2, 3, 7; 4, 6, 9; 1, 5, 8
C. 1, 5, 9; 2, 3, 8; 4, 6, 7
D. 1, 6, 7; 2, 3, 8; 4, 5, 9
Answer : C

Question. P, Q, R, S and T are Banks. Banks P, Q and R have their branches in Meerut and Lucknow. P, Q and T have their branches in Meerut and Gorakhpur. Q, R and S have their branches in Kanpur and Lucknow. P, T and S have their branches in Gorakhpur and Varanasi while R, T and S have their branches at Kanpur and Varanasi.
Which bank has its branch in Kanpur and Meerut but not in Lucknow?
A. P
B. Q
C. R
D. T
Answer : D

Question. Find the number of triangles formed in the given figure.

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A. 33
B. 37
C. 35
D. None of these
Answer : B

Question. If animals that live on land and the animals that live in water are represented by two big circles and animals that live in water and on land are represented by small circle, the combination of these three can be best represented as

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Answer : B

Question. Out of the five figures marked (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T), four are similar in a certain manner. However, one figure is not like the other four. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

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A. P
B. Q
C. R
D. T
Answer : C

Science

Question. A driver takes 0.20 s to apply brakes soon after he sees a need for it. If he is driving a car at a speed of 54 km h–1 and the brakes cause a deceleration of 6.0 m s–2, then the distance travelled by the car, after he sees the need to apply the brakes is ______.
A. 21.75 m
B. 42.50 m
C. 10.55 m
D. 16.25 m
Answer : A

Question. A block accelerates down a slope, as shown in the figure

.

The upper portion of the slope is smooth and lower portion is rough. On the lower portion,
(i) the speed of the block may increase, decrease or remain same.
(ii) the acceleration of block reduces.
(iii) the mass of block reduces.
Which of the following is/are correct?

A. (i) only
B. (i) and (ii) only
C. (ii) and (iii) only
D. (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer : B

Question. An aeroplane pilot hears a slow beat from the two engines of his plane. He increases the speed of the right engine and now hears a slower beat. What should the pilot now do, to eliminate the beat?
A. Increase the speed of the left engine
B. Decrease the speed of the right engine
C. Increase the speed of both engines
D. Increase the speed of the right engine
Answer : D

Question. A lump of ice floats in water as shown in the figure.

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Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The lump of ice floats because the area of its lower surface is larger than the area of its upper surface.
B. The pressure difference between the lower and the upper surfaces of the lump of ice gives rise to an upthrust equal to its weight.
C. The ice has a greater density than water.
D. The mass of water displaced by ice is equal to the upthrust.
Answer : B

Question. At a certain place, value of g is 1% less than its value on the surface of Earth. If the radius of Earth is given to be 6400 km, then the place is ______.
A. 64 km below the surface of the Earth
B. 64 km above the surface of the Earth
C. 30 km above the surface of the Earth
D. 32 km below the surface of the Earth.
Answer : A

Question. If suddenly the gravitational force of attraction between the Earth and a satellite revolving around it becomes zero, then the satellite will ______.
A. Fall onto the Earth
B. Move in a direction tangential to its original orbit
C. Escape horizontally
D. None of these
Answer : B

Question. A man of mass 55 kg climbs up a flight of steps toreach the spring board. The spring board is 6 m above the water surface in a swimming pool as shown in the given figure.
He jumps up into air, 3 m above the spring board, before falling into water in the swimming pool. If the average resisting force exerted by water on the man is 1500 N, then the maximum depth of the man in water will be

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A. 2.1 m
B. 3.3 m
C. 4.2 m
D. 5.6 m
Answer : B

Question. Converging lenses A and B have the same focal length, but B is only half the aperture of A. Both lenses are used to form images of distant objects on a screen. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. For both lenses, the distance from the lens to the screen is same.
B. For both lenses, the images are of the same brightness.
C. For both lenses, the images are of the same size as the object.
D. Lens B gives a smaller image than A.
Answer : A

Question. A plane mirror approaches a stationary person with an acceleration, a. The acceleration of his image, as seen by the person, will be
A. a
B. 2a
C. a/2
D. 4a
Answer : B

Question. Two objects, A and B are thrown upwards simultaneously with the same speed. The mass of A is greater than the mass of B. Suppose the air exerts a constant and equal force of resistance on the two bodies, then
A. A will go higher than B
B. B will go higher than A
C. The two bodies will reach the same height
D. None of these.
Answer : A

Question. Four students were given small pieces of materials P, Q, R and S respectively. They observed the reactions of these materials as follows :

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According to them, materials P, Q, R and S respectively are
A. Fe, Cu, Na, P
B. Na, Fe, P, Cu
C. P, Fe, Na, Cu
D. Cu, P, Na, Fe
Answer : C

Question. Read the given statements and mark the correct option.
Statement 1 : Food is a fuel for our body.
Statement 2 : In our body, food is broken down by reaction with oxygen and heat is produced
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Answer : A

Question. Match the Column-I with Column‑II and choose the correct option using the codes given below.
   Column-I                                 Column-II
(Mixture)                                     (Separation technique) 
a. An ink                                     (i) Distillation
b. Liquid air                                (ii) Evaporation and crystallization
c. Copper sulphate and             (iii) Fractional distillation water
d. Acetone and water                (iv) Chromatography
A. a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
B. a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv)
C. a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(ii)
D. a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
Answer : D

Question. Study the table carefully and select the correct statement.

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A. W is a noble gas.
B. X and Y are cations.
C. U and V are anions.
D. Z is the lightest element while V is the heaviest.'
Answer : D

Question. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
I. Rayon is a natural fibre as it is obtained by chemical treatment of wood pulp.
II. Plastics which cannot be softened by heating are called thermoplastics.
III. Nylon is semi-synthetic fibre.
IV. Plastics which get deformed easily on heating are known as thermosetting plastics.
A. I and III
B. I, II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. All of these
Answer : D

Question. A compound, PQ2 has the following arrangement of electrons :

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The elements P and Q are respectively
A. N, Cl
B. Cl, S
C. O, F
D. Na, F
Answer : C

Question. The calorific values of some fuels are given

FuelCalorific value (kJ/kg)
Coal25000 – 33000
Diese45000
LPG55000
CNG50000

On the basis of given data, the correct order of efficiency of different fuels is
A. LPG > CNG > Diesel > Coal
B. Coal > Diesel > LPG > CNG
C. Diesel > CNG > Coal > LPG
D. CNG > LPG > Diesel > Coal
Answer : A

Question. Three students Ankit, Dinesh and Manoj were given three unknown substances X, Y and Z respectively during the lab activity.

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On the basis of these properties, which student has chosen the correct separation technique, to separate a substance from the substance‑water mixture?
A. Ankit – Separating funnel
B. Dinesh – Distillation
C. Manoj – Fractional distillation
D. All are correct.
Answer : C

Question. The nucleon number of atom X is 37. It exists as a diatomic molecule, X2. One molecule of X2 contains 34 protons. How many neutrons are present in the nucleus of atom X?
A. 17
B. 20
C. 21
D. 25
Answer : B

Question. Ritu is studying about four epithelial tissues of the human body which primarily help in the following functions :
I. Gas exchange
II. Gamete formation
III. Movement of mucus
IV. Protection of underlying parts against abrasion
The given epithelial tissues respectively are ____.
A. Simple cuboidal epithelium, simple ciliated epithelium, simple squamous epithelium, white fibrous tissue
B. Simple ciliated epithelium, simple cuboidal epithelium, simple squamous epithelium, stratified squamous epithelium
C. Simple squamous epithelium, simple cuboidal epithelium, simple ciliated epithelium, stratified squamous epithelium
D. Stratified transitional epithelium, simple ciliated epithelium, simple squamous epithelium, white fibrous tissue
Answer : C

Question. Refer to the given key for the identification of the animal phyla from I to VIII and select the correct option.

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I. Mammalia            II. Aves
III. Arthropoda       IV. Echinodermata
V. Annelida            VI. Mollusca
VII. Reptilia           VIII. Amphibia
     P    Q     R      S    T      U    V     W

A. II      I      VI    IV    VII    V   VIII   III
B. I      II    VIII   VII     III   IV     VI    V
C. I      II    VIII   VII     IV   V     III    VI
D. II      I     VII   VIII     V   III    VI    IV
Answer : D

Question. Following are some characteristics of the three divisions of Kingdom Plantae : Bryophyta, Thallophyta and Pteridophyta.
1. Sex organs are multicellular
2. Essentially terrestrial
3. Non vascular
4. Lack true leaves and roots
5. Embryo formed after fertilization
6. Photoautotrophs
7. Examples are Lycopodium, Equisetum, Azolla, Marsilea
8. Sporophyte is parasitic over gametophyte
9. Examples are Ulva, Fucus, Sargassum, Cladophora Select the option which shows the correct characteristics of the respective divisions.
Bryophyta                 Thallophyta      Pteridophyta
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8        3, 4, 5, 6, 9        1, 2, 5, 6, 7
B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6,       3, 4, 6, 9            1, 2, 5, 6, 7, 8
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8    3, 4, 6, 7            1, 2, 5, 6, 9
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8    3, 4, 6, 9            1, 2, 5, 6, 7
Answer : D

Question. A group of students would like to know how the effluent from a factory might influence water quality of a river. The given diagram shows seven potential sampling locations (1 to 7) along the factory and the river. In order to draw a valid conclusion about the river water pollution caused by the factory discharge, which locations (1 to 7) shall be included for the sampling?

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A. Locations 2, 3, 4, 6
B. Locations 1, 2, 4, 7
C. Locations 2, 5, 6, 7
D. Locations 1, 2, 5, 7
Answer : D

Question. The given diagram shows a cell placed in a concentrated solution. What would happen when the cell is taken out from the concentrated solution and is placed in freshwater for a long time?

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I. The cell will recover its shape slowly.
II. The cell will shrink first.
III. The cell will burst eventually.
IV. Water molecules will diffuse into the cell by osmosis.
Select the correct option.
A. I and II
B. IV only
C. I, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
Answer : C

Question. The list given below shows some diseases caused by microorganisms/infectious agents. How many of these diseases are caused by virus? 
Elephantiasis, Tetanus, Hepatitis-B, Ringworm, Kala-azar, Influenza, Mumps, Typhoid, Dengue, Sleeping sickness
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 5
Answer : B

Question. Read the given statements.
I. Bee wax obtained from beehive is a deposition of the excretory products of honeybee
II. Fish culture is sometimes done in combination with rice crop so that fish are grown in the water accumulated in the paddy field.
III. Fish feed in different zones of the pond in order to make the most efficient use of the available food.

IV. Sahiwal and Murrah are exotic breeds used extensively in cattle farming.
V. Inter-cropping is growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field in a definite pattern.
Which of the given statements are incorrect?
A. I, II and III
B. II, III and IV
C. I and IV
D. I and V
Answer : C

Question. Weeds are the unwanted plants, which grow along with the crops and share nutrients, water and sunlight with the crops. Removal of these weeds can be done either by handpicking or with the help of chemicals. Which one of the following chemicals given below is a weedicide?
A. 2, 4-D
B. CH4
C. BHC
D. C2H4
Answer : A

Question. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below :
Column-I                                  Column-II
(National Park)                         (State)
a. Bandipur National Park           I. Karnataka
b. Dachigam National Park        II. Madhya Pradesh
c. Corbett National Park           III. Uttarakhand
d. Dudhwa National Park          IV. Jammu & Kashmir
e. Gir National Park                   V. Uttar Pradesh
f. Kanha National Park              VI. Assam
g. Kaziranga National Park       VII. Gujarat
    a       b     c       d       e      f      g
A. I      IV    III      V      VII     II     VI
B. V       I    IV     III        II    VII    VI
C. I      IV    III      V      VII    VI      II
D. III     II      I    VII        V     IV    VI
Answer : A

Question.

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Figure X shows the female reproductive system and figure Y shows the development of a fertilized egg cell. In which labelled parts of the female reproductive system will the stages I, II and III occur?
I II III
A. S P P
B. S Q P
C. S Q Q
D. S Q R
Answer : B

Question. Which of the following statements is the drawback of the green revolution?
A. Excessive use of chemical fertilizers, pesticides, etc. resulted in air, soil and water pollution.
B. More requirement of water by high-yielding crops resulted in the depletion of underground water resources.
C. Use of agrochemicals was an expensive measure for Indian farmers.
D. All of these
Answer : D

Achievers Section

Question. The speed-time graph for the motion of a motorcycle is shown here. What is the average speed over 12 s interval?

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A. 4.38 m s–1
B. 5.58 m s–1
C. 1.75 m s–1
D. 3.17 m s–1
Answer : D

Question. When an ideal simple pendulum oscillates between the extreme points P and Q, there is continuous (i) of potential energy and kinetic energy. The potential energy depends on the choice of (ii) . Force acting on the bob of the pendulum is maximum at (iii) , and minimum at (iv) .
           (i)                       (ii)                   (iii)                (iv)
A. Dissipation     reference level     mid point       extremes
B. Dissipation     mass mid             point              extremes
C. Exchange      reference level     extremes       mid point
D. Exchange      velocity                 extremes       mid point
Answer : C

Question. Given figure shows the effects of pressure and temperature on the changes among three states of matter.

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Select the correct statements.
I. Change 1 is carried out under high temperature and low pressure.
II. Change 4 is carried out under low temperature and high pressure.
III. Change 2 is carried out under low temperature and high pressure.
IV. Change 3 is carried out under low temperature and high pressure.
A. II and III
B. I and II
C. I, II and IV
D. I, II and III
Answer : C

Question. A scientist was studying the production of a protein, that was released by an animal cell into a culture medium. She found that the protein only appeared in the culture medium after she added a few drops of a hormone to the cell. Before adding the hormone, she
labelled the protein inside the cell with a fluorescent dye and looked at the cell under the light microscope: the dye was seen in flattened sheets and tube-like structures throughout the cell, and in stacks of flattened sac-like structures. After adding the hormone, the dye
was also seen as small dots clustered against the cell membrane. Which statement most likely explains these observations?
A. The hormone stimulates protein synthesis in the cell vacuole; the protein is then passed to the Golgi apparatus, and eventually passes through the cell membrane by passive diffusion.
B. The hormone triggers the synthesis of the protein in the endoplasmic reticulum which is then secreted outside the cell via channel proteins in the cell membrane.
C. The protein is made in the endoplasmic reticulum, which is next passed to the Golgi apparatus, and then secreted through hormone-stimulated exocytosis.
D. The protein is made in the Golgi apparatus, which is then passed to the endoplasmic reticulum, and finally secreted through hormone-stimulated pinocytosis.
Answer : C

Question. The given diagram shows nitrogen cycle in the ecosystem. P, Q, R, S and T represent different chemical conversion steps in the cycle.

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Which process (P–T) is correctly paired with the organismal group performing that step?
I. P – Photoautotrophs
II. Q – Bacteria symbiotic with plants
III. R – Anaerobic bacteria living in conditions, such as wetland ecosystem
IV. S – Nitrosomonas bacteria
V. T – Nitrogen fixing bacteria, such as Rhizobium or cyanobacteria
A. III, IV and V
B. IV and V
C. I, II and IV
D. III and IV
Answer : D

Chapter 01 Matter in Our Surroundings
CBSE Class 9 Science Matter In Our Surroundings MCQs
Chapter 02 Is Matter Around Us Pure
CBSE Class 9 Science Is Matter Around us Pure MCQs
Chapter 03 Atoms and Molecules
CBSE Class 9 Science Atoms and Molecules MCQs
Chapter 04 Structure of the Atom
CBSE Class 9 Science Structure of Atom MCQs
Chapter 05 Periodic Classification of Elements
CBSE Class 9 Science Periodic Classification of Elements MCQs
Chapter 05 The Fundamental Unit of Life
CBSE Class 9 Science The Fundamental Unit of Life MCQs
Chapter 07 Diversity in Living Organisms
CBSE Class 9 Science Diversity In Living Organisms MCQs
Chapter 09 Force and Laws of Motion
CBSE Class 9 Science Force and Laws of Motion MCQs
Chapter 13 Why Do We Fall Ill
CBSE Class 9 Science Why Do We Fall Ill MCQs
Chapter 14 Natural Resources
CBSE Class 9 Science Natural Resources MCQs
Chapter 15 Improvement in Food Resources
CBSE Class 9 Science Improvement In Food Resources MCQs

MCQs for NSO Olympiad Science Class 9

Expert teachers of studiestoday have referred to NCERT book for Class 9 Science to develop the Science Class 9 MCQs. If you download MCQs with answers for the above chapter you will get higher and better marks in Class 9 test and exams in the current year as you will be able to have stronger understanding of all concepts. Daily Multiple Choice Questions practice of Science will help students to have stronger understanding of all concepts and also make them expert on all critical topics. After solving the questions given in the MCQs which have been developed as per latest books also refer to the NCERT solutions for Class 9 Science. We have also provided lot of MCQ questions for Class 9 Science so that you can solve questions relating to all topics given in each chapter. After solving these you should also refer to Class 9 Science MCQ Test for the same chapter.

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