CBSE Class 9 Science NSO Olympiad MCQs with Answers Set E

Logical Reasoning

Question. Select the correct mirror image of given combination of letters and numbers, if mirror is placed vertically to the left.

Answer : B

Question. Select the figure from the options in which Fig. (X) is exactly embedded as one of its part.

Answer : A

Question. In a certain code, GIVE is written as 51@ © and FAIL is written as %219. How is LEAF written in that code?
A. 5 © 2%
B. 9 © 2%
C. 9 @ 2%
D. 9 © 1%
Answer : B

Question. In the following letter series, some of the letters are missing which are given in that order as one of the options below it. Choose the correct option.
b_ac_cc_cb_ab_ac
A. cbaba
B. bbaac
C. abbbc
D. aabba
Answer : D

Question. Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the relationship amongst, "Red, Clothes and Roses"?

Answer : C

Question. Trishu starts from point P and walks towards West and stops at point Q. She now takes a right turn and then a left turn and stops at point R. She finally takes a left turn and stops at point S. If she walks 5 km before taking each turn, towards which direction will Trishu have to walk from point S to reach point Q.
A. North
B. South
C. West
D. East
Answer : D

Question. Two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the question below the rows of numbers is to be answered. The operations on numbers progress from left to right.
Rules :
(i) If an odd number is followed by another odd number which is a perfect square, then they are to be added.
(ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number or an odd number is followed by an even number, they are to be multiplied.
(iii) If an even number is followed by another even number, the first number is to be divided by the second number.
(iv) If an even number which is a multiple of 5 is followed by an odd number which is also a multiple of 5, then the second number is to be subtracted from the first number.
                                              18   7   6
                                            140 85 49
What is the sum of the resultants of the two rows?
A. 104
B. 55
C. 121
D. 125
Answer : D

Question. Three different positions of a dice are given below

Answer : B

Question. Select the figure from the options which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as in Fig. (X).

Answer : D

Question. Three persons P, Q and R are standing in a queue.
There are five persons between P and Q and eight other persons between Q and R. If there are only three persons ahead of R and 21 persons behind P, what could be the minimum number of persons in the queue?
A. 40
B. 43
C. 47
D. 48
Answer : A

AScience

Question. A body covers 26, 28, 30 and 32 metre in 10th, 11th, 12th and 13th seconds respectively. The body starts
A. From rest and moves with uniform velocity.
B. From rest and moves with uniform acceleration.
C. With an initial velocity and moves with uniform acceleration.
D. With an initial velocity and moves with non-uniform acceleration.
Answer : C

Question. A solid cylinder of length l, cross sectional area A and density 5/4 ×103kg m–3 is immersed such that it floats with its axis vertical at the liquid-liquid interface with length l/4 in the denser liquid as shown in the figure.

The lesser dense liquid is open to atmospheric pressure P0. If the density of lesser dense liquid is 1.0 ×10³ kg m^–3 then the density of denser liquid will be
A. 1.5 × 10³ kg m^–3
B. 2.0 × 10³ kg m^–3
C. 2.5 × 10³ kg m^–3
D. 3.0 × 10³ kg m^–3
Answer : B

Question. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1 : The forces of action and reaction always appear due to actual physical contact of two bodies.
Statement 2 : A particle can move only under the action of a force.
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Answer : D

Question. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower. When it has fallen by 5 m from the top, another stone is dropped from a point 25 m below the top. If both stones reach the ground at the same moment, then height of the tower from ground is (Take g = 10 m s–2)
A. 45 m
B. 50 m
C. 60 m
D. 65 m
Answer : A

Question. Refer to the graph given here:

Which of the following sound waves is high-pitched but soft?
A. P
B. Q
C. R
D. S
Answer : D

Question. The frequency of a source is 20 kHz. The frequencies of the sound waves produced by it in water and air will
A. Be the same as that of the source
B. Depend upon the velocity of the waves in these media
C. Depend upon the wavelength of the waves in these media
D. Depend upon the density of the media.
Answer : A

Question. A planet of mass m is revolving around the sun in a circle of radius r. What is the work done by the gravitational force F in moving the planet over half the circumference of the circle?
A. Zero
B. F × 2πr
C. F × πr
D. F × 2r
Answer : A

Question. Two satellites of masses m₁ and m₂ (m₁ > m₂) are revolving around the earth in circular orbits of radii r₁ and r₂ (r₁ > r₂) respectively. Which of the following is true regarding their respective speeds v₁ and v₂?
A. v₁ = v₂
B. v₁ > v₂
C. v₁ < v₂
D. Cannot be predicted
Answer : C

Question. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
(i) Work and energy have different units.
(ii) Two bodies of unequal masses have equal acceleration at any instant of time when they are dropped from a cliff.
(iii) When an aeroplane takes off, the work done by its weight is positive.
(iv) When the speed of a particle is doubled, the ratio of its momentum and kinetic energy gets halved.
A. (ii) only
B. (i) and (iii) only
C. (i), (ii) and (iv) only
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer : B

Question. A bicycle is being pedalled on a horizontal road. The forces of friction between the road and the front and rear wheels are F₁ and F₂ respectively. Then
A. Both F₁ and F₂ act in the forward direction.
B. Both F₁ and F₂ act in the backward direction.
C. F₁ acts in the forward direction, F₂ acts in the backward direction.
D. F₁ acts in the backward direction, F₂ acts in the forward direction.
Answer : D

Question. A girl whose eyes are 150 cm above the ground looks at her reflection in a vertical mirror 250 cm away.
The top and bottom of the mirror are 200 cm and 120 cm above the ground respectively. What length below her eyes can she see, of herself in the mirror?
A. 60 cm
B. 75 cm
C. 100 cm
D. 120 cm
Answer : A

Question. The given diagrams show four mercury barometers.

If the value of external pressure in cases (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) is represented by P_I, P_II, P_III and P_IV respectively, then
A. P_I > P_II = P_III > P_IV
B. P_IV > P_II = P_III > P_I
C. P_III > P_II > P_IV > P_I
D. P_I = P_II = P_III = P_IV
Answer : D

Question. The given diagram represents an activity to separate a mixture of two substances X and Y :

Substances X and Y are respectively
A. Sugar and common salt
B. Acetone and water
C. Ammonium chloride and naphthalene
D. Ethyl alcohol and sodium chloride.
Answer : C

Question. Read the following statements carefully.
P. I am extensively used in the healthcare industry but my one disadvantage is that I am nonbiodegradable.
Q. I am very familiar form of polyester and used for making bottles, utensils, films, wires, etc.
R. I am synthetic fibre, having wool-like feel and cheaper than wool.
S. I am thermosetting plastic and poor conductor of heat and electricity.
P, Q, R and S are respectively
A. PET, Rayon, Petrochemical, Plastic
B. Terylene, Acrylic, Rayon, Melamine
C. PVC, PET, Nylon, Teflon
D. Plastic, PET, Acrylic, Bakelite.
Answer : D

Question. Which of the following statements are correct?
(Given: At. wt. of Ca = 40 u, Mg = 24 u, N = 14 u, H = 1 u, Na = 23 u, Cl = 35.5 u)
I. 240 g of calcium and 240 g of magnesium elements have a molar ratio of 3 : 5.
II. 100 g of N2 contains more atoms than 100 g of NH3.
III. Total number of ions in 5.85 g of sodium chloride is 1.2 × 1022.
IV. 1 gram molecule of hydrogen gas contains 12.046 × 1023 atoms of hydrogen.
V. 5.6 g of nitrogen gas occupies 3.2 L of volume at STP.
A. II and III only
B. I, II and III only
C. I and IV only
D. IV and V only
Answer : C

Question. Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option.
In an oil refinery, crude oil is heated to about 673 K and passed into the (i) . As the vapours rise towards the top, the different hydrocarbons (ii) at different heights and are withdrawn separately. Substance with (iii) boiling point is collected at the (iv) of the column.

Answer : C

Question. The arrangement of particles of an unknown substance at the same pressure at two different temperatures is shown in the diagrams :

Which of the following substances could the diagrams represent?

Answer : C

Question. The schematic atomic structures of three elements X, Y and Z are given as :

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
I. Z can form ZCl3 and ZCl5.
II. Y exists in monoatomic form.
III. X and Z combine to form X3Z type compound.
IV. X and Y combine to form XY2 type compound.
V. X will gain two electrons to form a stable compound.
A. I and II only
B. I, II and IV only
C. II, IV and V only
D. III, IV and V only
Answer : D

Question. Observe the given diagram carefully.

.Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Both the metal strips will dissolve in beaker 2.
II. Colour of the solution will change in beaker 1.
III. Reaction will take place in beaker 3 but there will be no colour change.
IV. Reaction will occur only in beakers 1 and 2.
A. II and III only
B. I and II only
C. I and IV only
D. All of these
Answer : C

Question. In an experiment, 1.50 g of pure copper (II) oxide was reduced to pure metal by heating with pure carbon. In another experiment, 1.15 g of pure copper was treated with nitric acid and the product formed was heated strongly till no further change was observed. The mass of copper (II) oxide so formed was found to be 1.40 g.
The mass of pure metal formed in the first experiment and the law followed are respectively
A. 1.15 g and law of conservation of mass
B. 1.50 g and law of constant proportions
C. 1.23 g and law of constant proportions
D. 2.47 g and law of multiple proportions.
Answer : C

Question. Wax burns with a flame because
A. Liquid wax is vaporised and the vapours of wax burn.
B. Carbon from the wax vaporises to burn.
C. Carbon from the wax combines with oxygen to form carbon dioxide which burns.
D. Hydrogen of the wax burns to form water.
Answer : A

Question. The given table shows the number of protons, neutrons and electrons in atoms or ions. Which atom/ion in the table is an isotope of the atom with the composition of 11 p, 11 e and 14 n?

A. P
B. Q
C. R
D. S
Answer : A

Question. A strain of an animal exists in wild in which there is only one nucleolus in the nucleus of each cell instead of the usual two.
When such animals are mated, approximately one quarter of the offspring have two nucleoli per nucleus, one half have one nucleolus per nucleus and one quarter have no nucleolus at all. Offspring without nucleoli die about four days after hatching.
These offspring die because they do not possess
A. Mitochondria and are unable to obtain energy
B. Centrioles and are unable to undergo cell division
C. Golgi apparatus and are unable to remove dead cells
D. Ribosomes and are unable to manufacture proteins.
Answer : D

Question. Refer to the diagrammatic representations of parts of two different tissues, X and Y. 

Now, read the following statements and select the correct ones regarding these tissues.
(i) X is an animal tissue whereas Y is a plant tissue.
(ii) X is the major water conducting tissue in vascular plants and gives mechanical strength to plant body.
(iii) X is composed of all dead cells whereas Y is composed of all living cells.
(iv) X conducts water in vascular plants in downward direction.
(v) In animals, Y helps in conduction of nerve impulses from various organs to brain and spinal cord and vice versa.
A. (i) and (ii) only
B. (iv) only
C. (v) only
D. (iii), (iv) and (v) only
Answer : C

Question. The given graph shows the amount of pollutants in four rivers P, Q, R and S. The river that can continue to support the most number of aquatic plants and animals is ________.

A. P
B. Q
C. R
D. S
Answer : A

Question. Refer to the given flow chart and identify P, Q, R, S and T.

        P                 Q                          R                     S                T
A. Pinus         Funaria               Ulothrix            Brassica       Riccia
B. Spirogyra   Funaria               Dryop- teris      Cycas          Hibiscus
C. Tagetes     Marchantia          Ginkgo             Salvia          Marsilea
D. Volvox       Lycopodium        Cycas              Adiantum     Pteridium
Answer : B

Direction : Read the given passage and answer the questions a and b.
Sukriti and Priya are good friends and study in I standard of a reputed school. On a hot summer day, while they both were playing in the school playground, Priya felt uncomfortable and sat down. After some time she developed acute headache and high fever. Her legs stopped moving and she also felt some stiffness in her neck. Soon she became unconscious.

Question a. Identify the disease which Priya has contracted, along with its causative agent and mode of transmission

Answer : C

Question b. What could be the probable reason for Sukriti not being affected by pathogen of this disease?
A. Sukriti's immune system has already encountered the weakened pathogens and developed memory cells, which produce antibodies whenever pathogen enters her body.
B. Sukriti had actually contracted the disease few months back and recovered, hence her immune system has developed memory cells, which prevent any subsequent pathogen attack.
C. Sukriti is taking antibiotics regularly, which kill the pathogens entering her body and prevent the actual disease.
D. Sukriti has received antibodies against the pathogen from her mother via placenta so she is immune to the pathogen of this disease by birth.
Answer : A

Question. Read the given sentences, each with one or two blanks and select the option that correctly fills any four of these.
(i) P causes ulcers in stomach and duodenum.
(ii) Q diseases last for only short period of time but are severe.
(iii) R diseases are anatomical or physiological abnormalities present since birth, e.g., S .
(iv) Malaria causing microbes are transmitted through bite of infected T and move to U and then red blood cells of humans.
A. P-Salmonella typhi, R-Chronic, T-Sandfly, U-Brain cells
B. Q-Acute, S-Kala azar, T-Tsetse fly, U-Pancreas
C. P-Helicobacter pylori, R-Congenital, S-Cleft palate, U – Liver
D. Q-Chronic, R-Acute, T-Aedes mosquito, U-Spleen
Answer : C

Question. The given diagrams show two different cropping patterns, X and Y. Identify these patterns and select the incorrect option regarding them.

A. In cropping pattern X, the crops should not have the same root pattern.
B. Crops selected for cropping pattern Y should have different type of nutrient requirement.
C. Crops selected for cropping pattern X must have different maturation time.
D. In cropping pattern Y, only two crops can be grown simultaneously at a time.
Answer : D

Question. Given below is the diagrammatic representation of an animal tissue, X.

Identify the tissue and select the correct option regarding it.
A. Tissue X forms a shock absorbing cushion around kidneys and eyeballs.
B. Tissue X fills the spaces inside the organs and fastens the peritoneum to the body wall.
C. Tissue X connects skeletal muscles with bones.
D. Tissue X is commonly called packaging tissue of the body.
Answer : A

Question. Refer to the given Venn diagram and select the correct option regarding P, Q and R.

A. P could be Chlamydomonas or Aspergillus.
B. Q could be Volvox or Penicillium.
C. R could be Lactobacillus or Rhizobium.
D. All of these
Answer : C

Question. Refer to the diagram showing organ X of the human body and read the following paragraph.

Organ X secretes two hormones P and Q. P prepares our body to function at maximum efficiency during emergency situations whereas Q maintains the correct salt balance in the blood.
Identify P and Q and select the correct option.
A. P – Aldosterone, Q – Thyroxine
B. P – Adrenaline, Q – Aldosterone
C. P – Insulin, Q – Adrenaline
D. P – Thyroxine, Q – Adrenaline
Answer : B

Question. Which of the following activities will lead to both air and water pollution?
A. Use of manures and fertilisers in a crop field
B. Use of cooling devices like air conditioners and refrigerators
C. Burning of fossil fuels and use of fuel operated transport vehicles.
D. All of these
Answer : C

Question. Shown below is the diagrammatic representation of a biosphere reserve.

Select the correct statement regarding this.
A. Tourists can visit P and Q zones but are not allowed in the R zone.
B. Human settlement and cultivation of crops is allowed in P and Q zones only.
C. Human activities like research and environmental education are allowed in all P, Q and R zones.
D. Cutting of trees is allowed in all the zones but hunting of wild animals is allowed only in Q zone.
Answer : A

Achievers Section

Question. Study the given graph carefully and select the correct statement(s).

I. When water is cooled to 4°C, the volume decreases.
II. Ice and water co-exist at 0°C.
III. Water has minimum density at point Q.
IV. The volume of ice is more than that of water.
A. I only
B. II and III only
C. I, II and IV only
D. All of these'
Answer : C

Question. Refer to the given graph and fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option.

The displacement of the particle from its initial position at the end of 15 s and 30 s is ___(i)___ and ___(ii)___ respectively. The average velocity of the particle between 15 s and 25 s and 0 s to 30 s is ___(iii)___ and ___(iv)___ respectively.
       (i)             (ii)             (iii)             (iv)
A. 40 m          60 m        4 ms^–1        2 ms^–1
B. 40 m        100 m        2 ms^–1        4 ms^–1
C. 20 m          60 m        4 ms^–1        4 ms^–1
D. 20 m        100 m        2 ms^–1          2 ms^–1
Answer : A

Question. A particle falls from rest under gravity. Which of the following graphs correctly shows the variation of (i) its potential energy with respect to the ground against time and (ii) its kinetic energy against time?

Answer : B

Question. Refer to the given dichotomous key and select the incorrect option regarding organisms P, Q, R and S.
I. (a) Animals with cellular level of body organisation. – P
(b) Animals with tissue/organ/organ system level of body organisation. – Go to II
II. (a) Animals possessing bilateral symmetry. – Go to III (a)
(b) Animals possessing radial symmetry. – Go to III (b)
III. (a) True coelom is present. – Go to IV (a)
(b) True coelom is absent. – Go to IV (b)
IV. (a) Notochord is present. – Q
(b) Notochord is absent. – Go to V
V. (a) It forms symbiotic association with hermit crab. – R
(b) It is commonly known as jelly fish. – S
A. Body of organism P contains numerous small pores called ostia and a single large opening called osculum on top.
B. Organism Q possesses gill slits at some stage of its life.
C. The body of organism R is differentiated into head, visceral mass and ventral foot.
D. Organism S possesses nematocysts.
Answer : C

Question. Refer to the given diagram of an animal cell and select the option that correctly describes the functional relationship between organelles P and Q.

A. Polypeptides synthesised at Q are transported to P where they are stored for regular use in cytoplasm.
B. Polypeptides synthesised at Q are transported to P where they are modified into functional proteins for secretion.
C. Polypeptides synthesised at P are packaged into vesicles that move to Q for further modification.
D. Polypeptides synthesised at P are packaged without modification and move to Q where they are stored for regular use in cytoplasm.
Answer : B