Refer to CBSE Class 9 Science NSO Olympiad MCQs with Answers Set H provided below available for download in Pdf. The MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with answers are aligned as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern suggested by CBSE, NCERT and KVS. Multiple Choice Questions for NSO Olympiad are an important part of exams for Class 9 Science and if practiced properly can help you to improve your understanding and get higher marks. Refer to more Chapter-wise MCQs for CBSE Class 9 Science and also download more latest study material for all subjects
MCQ for Class 9 Science NSO Olympiad
Class 9 Science students should refer to the following multiple-choice questions with answers for NSO Olympiad in Class 9.
NSO Olympiad MCQ Questions Class 9 Science with Answers
Logical Reasoning
Question. Select a figure from the options which will complete the given figure series.
Answer : C
Question. If '→' stands for 'addition'; '←' stands for 'subtraction'; '↑' stands for 'division'; '↓' stands for 'multiplication' and '↑ ' stands for 'equal to', then which of the following options is incorrect?
A. 2 ↓ 5 ← 6 → 2 ↑ 6
B. 3 → 7 ← 3 ↑ 3 ↑ 9
C. 3 ↓ 6 ↑ 2 → 3 ← 6 ↓ 5
D. 7 ↑ 5 ← 4 → 3 ↓ 4 ↑ 2
Answer : C
Question. Three positions of a dice are given. Find the symbol opposite to symbol ■ .
A. ×
B. •
C. 〇
D. ↓
Answer : C
Question. A number arrangement machine, when given an input line of numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and the steps of rearrangement.
Input : 85 16 36 04 19 97 63 09
Step I : 97 85 16 36 04 19 63 09
Step II : 97 85 63 16 36 04 19 09
Step III : 97 85 63 36 16 04 19 09
Step IV : 97 85 63 36 19 16 04 09
Step V : 97 85 63 36 19 16 09 04
Step V is the last step for this input.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, which of the following is the last step of the given input?
Input : 88 26 07 36 11 64 21
A. IV
B. VI
C. V
D. VII
Answer : A
Question. How many pairs of letters are there in the word EXCLAMATORY which have as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. More than four
Answer : D
Question. Which of the following options satisfies the given Venn diagram?
A. English, French, German
B. Mothers, Females, Cricketers
C. Prime numbers, Integers, Even numbers
D. Planets, Mars, Sun
Answer : C
Question. Count the number of triangles and minimum number of straight lines respectively in the given figure.
A. 30, 11
B. 28, 13
C. 26, 14
D. None of these
Answer : B
Question. In which of the following figures, Fig. (X) is exactly embedded as one of its parts?
Answer : D
Question. Find the correct water image of Fig.(X).
Answer : A
Question. Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows.
(i) P * Q means P is the father of Q.
(ii) P ÷ Q means P is the sister of Q.
(iii) P $ Q means P is the brother of Q.
(iv) P # Q means P is the wife of Q.
How is A related to B in ''A ÷ C $ D # B''?
A. Mother
B. Aunt
C. Sister-in-law
D. Mother-in-law
Answer : C
Science
Question. Two unequal masses P and Q moving along straight lines are brought to rest by applying equal retarding forces. If P moves twice the time as Q, but goes only (1/3)rd of the distance covered by Q before coming to rest, the ratio of their initial velocities is
A. 1 : 2
B. 1 : 6
C. 2 : 3
D. 2 : 1
Answer : B
Question. Mass of a man is 80 kg. He stands on a weighing scale in a lift which is moving upwards with a uniform acceleration of 5 m s–2. What would be the reading on the scale? (g = 10 m s–2)
A. zero
B. 400 N
C. 120 N
D. 1200 N
Answer : D
Question. The given diagram shows the water tank and the position of the shower head in the bathroom of a household. The water pressure must be 8 kPa in order to function shower head effectively. The density of water is 1000 kg m–3. Find the minimum height that a plumber must raise the water tank to, so that the water pressure at the shower head can be 8 kPa.
(Assume pipe of sufficient length is given.)
A. 0.2 m
B. 0.3 m
C. 0.5 m
D. 1 m
Answer : B
Question. A positively charged rod is moved near conducting sphere as shown. What will be the movements of the electrons and protons in the conducting sphere?
Electrons Protons
A. Move to left Move to right
B. Move to right Move to left
C. Do not move Move to left
D. Move to left Do not move
Answer : D
Question. The diagram shows three waves X, Y and Z displayed on the screen of the oscilloscope connected to a microphone when three different sounds are made in front of the microphone.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding different sounds?
A. Sound X has a higher pitch than sound Y.
B. Sound X has the same pitch as sound Z.
C. Sound Y is louder than sound Z.
D. Sound Y has a lower pitch than sound Z.
Answer : D
Question. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1 : The blood pressure in human is greater at the feet than at the brain.
Statement 2 : In a liquid, pressure at any point is proportional to the height, density of the liquid and the acceleration due to gravity.
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are fals
Answer : A
Question. The maximum vertical distance through which a fully dressed astronaut can jump on the earth is 0.5 m. Estimate the maximum vertical distance through which he can jump on the moon, which has a mean density (2/3)rd that of the earth and radius one quarter that of the earth.
A. 3 m
B. 6 m
C. 8 m
D. 9 m
Answer : A
Question. If two plane mirrors are inclined at an angle of 60° to each other, how many images of an object are seen?
A. Only 3
B. Only 4
C. Only 5
D. None of these
Answer : C
Question. A man of mass 70 kg is standing on a bus which is moving at a speed of 70 km h–1. At one point of his journey, he jumps upward to a height of 30 cm. Where does he land his feet on the floor of the bus again?
A. At the same spot where he was standing.
B. A short distance behind where he was standing.
C. A long distance behind where he was standing.
D. A long distance in front of where he was standing.
Answer : A
Question. The gravitational force between two masses kept at a certain distance is p N. The same two masses are now kept in water and the distance between them is same. If the gravitational force between these two masses in water is q N, then
A. p = q
B. p < q
C. p > q
D. None of these.
Answer : A
Question. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1 : The loudness or softness of a sound is determined basically by its amplitude.
Statement 2 : The amplitude of the sound wave depends upon the force with which an object is made to vibrate.
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Answer : A
Question. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(i) Cones in our eyes are sensitive to bright light.
(ii) The type of lens in our eyes is concave.
(iii) In cataract, eye lens becomes clouded.
(iv) Splitting of white light into its colours is known as scattering of light.
A. (i) Only
B. (i) and (iv) only
C. (ii) and (iii) only
D. (i) and (iii) only
Answer : D
Question. Which of the following statements are correct?
I. A pure substance has fixed melting and boiling points.
II. If a liquid is impure, it will boil over a range of temperatures but will freeze at a fixed temperature.
III. If the pressure acting on a liquid is increased, the boiling point will increase.
IV. A pure orange juice will have a fixed boiling point.
A. I and III only
B. I and II only
C. III and IV only
D. I, II and IV only
Answer : A
Question. Rohit studied the properties of a few common substances and recorded his observations in the given table.
The incorrect observations are
A. 1, 4 and 5 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only.
Answer : B
Question. The physical properties of two substances P and Q are given in the table.
Melting point ( C) | Boiling point ( C) | |
P | –95 | 69 |
Q | –91 | 104 |
If in liquid states, P and Q are miscible then which of the following statements is correct regarding their separation?
A. P and Q both are volatile liquids at room temperature hence, can be separated by fractional distillation.
B. P is a solid while Q is a volatile liquid at room temperature hence, can be separated by evaporation.
C. P is a solid and Q is a liquid at room temperature hence, can be separated by filtration.
D. P and Q both are liquids at room temperature and can be separated from each other by simple distillation.
Answer : D
Question. A few polymers are grouped together on the basis of a common property as follows :
Group I : Dacron, acrylic, nylon, jute
Group II : PVC, melamine, teflon
Group III : Polycot, terrywool, acrylic
Choose the odd one out in groups I, II and III.
I II III
A. Dacron Teflon Terrywool
B. Nylon Teflon Acrylic
C. Jute Melamine Terrywool
D. Jute Melamine Acrylic
Answer : D
Question. A few compounds are listed as :
(i) Ammonia, (ii) Aluminium fluoride, (iii) Magnesium sulphide, (iv) Magnesium oxide
Find the ratio by mass of the combining elements in each compound.
(Given : Atomic mass of N = 14 u, H = 1 u, Mg = 24 u,
O = 16 u, S = 32 u, F = 19 u and Al = 27 u)
Answer : B
Question. Schematic atomic structures of three species are given as :
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
A. 11 8 L 30 L
B. 16 6 M 16 N
C. 11 8 L 31 M
D. 16 8 L 30 M
Answer : C
Question. Nitika, a class 9 student conducted the following experiment and stated her observations as follows :
Beaker I : Hydrogen gas is evolved which burns with a pop sound.
Beaker II : Reaction is very vigorous and graphite starts floating on water.
Beaker III : A reddish brown deposit is obtained over aluminium rod.
Beaker IV : Copper reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to form blue coloured solution of copper chloride.
Observation(s) is/are incorrect in case of beaker(s)
A. II and III only
B. II only
C. II and IV only
D. IV only.
Answer : C
Question. At a refinery, petroleum is separated into several components by a process called fractional distillation using a fractionating column.
Which of the following statements is correct about the fractional distillation of petroleum?
A. At each level in the column, only one compound is collected.
B. Temperature increases from bottom to top of the column.
C. The fractions collected at the top of the column are less volatile.
D. The fraction with the highest boiling point condenses first and gets collected near the base of the fractionating tower.
Answer : D
Question. Elements X and Y have octet configuration in their L shell after forming stable dipositive and dinegative ions respectively. The respective electronic configuration of the succeeding element of X and the preceding element of Y are
A. 2, 7 and 2, 5
B. 2, 8, 3 and 2, 5
C. 2, 5 and 2, 8, 3
D. 2, 8, 1 and 2, 7
Answer : B
Question. A solid sample of sulphur contains 0.25 mol of sulphur molecules. The number of moles of sulphur atoms, number of sulphur molecules and number of sulphur atoms present in the given sample are respectively
A. 6.023 × 1023, 3 and 3.2 × 1023
B. 2, 3.2 × 1023 and 6.02 × 1023
C. 2, 1.5 × 1023 and 1.2 × 1023
D. 1.2 × 1024, 3.2 × 1023 and 2
Answer : C
Question. Refer to the given figures of two plants X and Y with their parts labelled as P, Q, R and S.
Select the correct option regarding them.
A. Plant body of both X and Y is diploid sporophyte where P is the spore producing part.
B. Q represents true stem, R represents true leaves whereas S represents true roots in both X and Y.
C. Seed setting is absent in both plants X and Y and they reproduce through spores.
D. All parts of plant Y possess vascular tissues whereas vascular tissues are present only in part P of plant X.
Answer : C
Question. Refer to the given outline of nitrogen cycle. Identify X and Y and select the correct statement regarding them.
A. In the process X, protein is converted into ammonia by the action of bacteria while in the process Y, nitrates present in the decaying remains get converted into free nitrogen gas.
B. In the process X, nitrates present in the soil get converted into free nitrogen gas while in the process Y, proteins are converted into ammonia by the action of bacteria.
C. Process X represents the conversion of ammonia into nitrates while process Y represents the conversion of nitrates into the free nitrogen gas.
D. Process X represents the conversion of ammonia into nitrites while process Y represents the conversion of complex organic compounds like proteins into
Answer : B
Question. Select the pair that shows the same relationship as the animals in the box.
Amoeba : Paramecium
A. Rhizopus : Chlamydomonas
B. Candida : Saccharomyces
C. Pteridium : Fasciola
D. Albugo : Adiantum
Answer : B
Question. Identify P, Q and R in the given flow chart and select the correct option regarding them.
P Q R
A. Blackbuck Golden langur Giant panda
B. Silvery pigeon Chinkara Desert kangaroo rat
C. Passenger pigeon Asian elephant Sloth bear
D. Dodo Thorny tree frog Blue whale
Answer : C
Question. What would happen to the air bubble in the following set-up after 30 minutes?
A. It will disappear.
B. It will move to the left.
C. It will move to the right.
D. It will remain stationary.
Answer : B
Question. The given graph shows changes in three components X, Y and Z in a water body after point P (where fertiliser run off from crop field took place).
Select the correct statement regarding X, Y and Z.
A. X could be phosphate compounds whose concentration gradually reduced downstream due to their consumption by growing aquatic plants.
B. Y could be nitrate compounds which initially increased due to introduction of NPK fertilisers whereas Z represents decomposer microbes whose number increased in order to decompose these compounds.
C. Y could be algae which multiplied rapidly due to nutrient enrichment of water body whereas X could be dissolved oxygen which started reducing simultaneously with the increase in decomposition activity of microbes Z after death of algae.
D. Y could be aquatic animals which initially increased in number due to consumption of large amount of aquatic plants X and then decreased gradually with the reduction in plant population.
Answer : C
Question. Refer to the given flow chart and select the correct option regarding it.
A. R and U secrete male and female hormones respectively called testosterone and estrogen but gametes produced by R are much more in number as compared to those produced by U.
B. Secretion of both P and Q nourish and activate sperms to swim but secretion of Q contains a type of sugar which is not present anywhere else in the body.
C. T is the site of fertilisation whereas S is the site of implantation of embryo.
D. All of these
Answer : D
Question. Refer to the given Venn diagram and select the incorrect option regarding structures V, W, X, Y and Z.
A. V could be an outermost protective covering which is composed of lipopolysaccharides in bacteria and cellulose in plants.
B. Y could be a membrane-less organelle involved in protein synthesis whereas Z could be an ingrowth of cell membrane that contains respiratory enzymes.
C. Both W and X could be double membrane structures but inner membrane of W is smooth whereas that of X is thrown into folds.
D. W takes part in photosynthesis whereas Z connects genetic material with plasma membrane.'
Answer : C
Question. Select the incorrect statement.
A. Osmosis is a slow process, occurs down the concentration gradient and does not expend energy.
B. Electron microscope uses electromagnets instead of glass lenses and beam of electrons instead of light.
C. A semipermeable membrane does not allow both solvent and solute molecules to pass through it.
D. Active transport of materials across plasma membrane is rapid and usually occurs against the concentration gradient involving carrier proteins and energy in the form of ATP.
Answer : C
Question. Refer to the given box containing names of some human diseases and select incorrect statement regarding it.
Chikungunya, Rabies, Yellow fever,
Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Trypanosomiasis,
Dengue, Kala azar, Tetanus,
Genital herpes
A. The given box contains five viral diseases out of which four are vector borne and one is sexually transmitted.
B. The given box contains two protozoan diseases and three bacterial diseases where all the protozoan diseases are vector borne.
C. Out of the two bacterial diseases listed in the given box, one is sexually transmitted while DPT vaccine is available for the other.
D. Female Aedes aegypti serves as a vector for three of the diseases listed in the box.
Answer : B
Question. Refer to the given table and select the option that correctly fills the blanks in it.
Animal | Indigenous breed | Exotic breed |
Cow | Sahiwal | P |
Poultry | Q | Plymouth rock |
Honey bee | A. indica | R |
P Q R
A. Jersey Aseel A.mellifera
B. Wyandotte Malvi A.dorsata
C. Alpine Bakharwal A.dorsata
D. Australorp Ghagus A.adamsoni
Answer : A
Question. Which of the following correctly exemplifies acquisition of active immunity by a person?
A. A person who has recovered from an attack of mumps, develops natural active immunity.
B. When ready-made antibodies are directly injected into a person's body to protect him against foreign agents, then he acquires artificial active immunity.
C. When a person is vaccinated for a disease then he acquires natural active immunity for that disease.
D. When antibody is transferred from mother to the fetus through placenta then the developing baby acquires artificial active immunity.
Answer : A
Question. Refer to the given picture of blood smear and select the correct option regarding different blood corpuscles (P-S).
A. Blood cell Q plays a major role in transport of gases within the body.
B. A person who is unable to produce blood cell S bleeds continuously even from a minor injury.
C. Blood cell P produces antibodies in response to a pathogenic infection in the body.
D. Blood cell R contains a red pigment called haemoglobin that shows affinity for oxygen
Answer : B
Achievers Section
Question. Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option.
In a (i) wave the particles of the medium oscillate in a direction (ii) to the direction of propagation. Thus, during their oscillations, the particles may move upwards or downwards from the plane passing through their mean positions. The point of maximum positive displacement on a transverse wave is called (iii) and the point of maximum negative displacement is called (iv) . The wave produced in a stretched string when plucked are (v) waves.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
A. Longitudinal Parallel Crest Trough Longitudinal
B. Transverse Perpendicular Trough Crest Longitudinal
C. Longitudinal Parallel Trough Crest Transverse
D. Transverse Perpendicular Crest Trough Transverse
Answer : D
Question. Acceleration-time graph for a particle in translatory motion is given here. Match the quantities of column I with column II and select the correct option from given codes.
Column I Column II
I. Average acceleration from 0 to 5 s P. 5.0 m s–2
II. Average acceleration from 0 to 10 s Q. 10.0 m s–2
III. Average acceleration from 0 to 20 s R. 13.3 m s–2
IV. Average acceleration from 0 to 30 s S. 15.0 m s–2
A. I-S, II-P, III-R, IV-Q
B. I-P, II-Q, III-S, IV-R
C. I-Q, II-P, III-R, IV-S
D. I-S, II-R, III-P, IV-Q
Answer : B
Direction (Q. No. a and b) : Refer to the given passage and answer the following questions.
P, Q and R are acoelomate organisms whereas S and T are true coelomates. P possesses cellular level of body organisation whereas others possess tissue and organ level of body organisation. Q possesses special stinging cells called cnidoblasts. R is the first triploblastic animal and has flame cells as excretory organs. The body of S is metamerically segmented whereas T bears jointed
appendages and chitinous exoskeleton.
Question a. Select the option that correctly identifies organisms P, Q, R, S and T.
P Q R S T
A. Euspongia Hydra Hirudinaria Fasciola Periplaneta
B. Euplectella Obelia Dugesia Pheretima Palaemon
C. Sycon Taenia Adamsia Scolopendra Musca
D. Aurelia Schistosoma Ascaris Nereis Palamnaeus
Answer : B
Question b. Which of the following is incorrect regarding organisms P, Q R, S and T?
A. P possesses endoskeleton of calcareous spicules whereas Q is always aquatic.
B. R could be a parasite which attaches to the body of host through hooks and suckers whereas S possesses metanephridia for excretion.
C. T sheds off its chitinous exoskeleton periodically during its growth which is referred to as moulting.
D. None of these
Answer : D
Question. The given apparatus shows a method to separate ethanol-water mixture.
Which of the following statements are correct?
I. During the process, the liquid with the highest boiling point distils over first.
II. Ethanol reaches the upper part of the column first.
III. Thermometer first shows a constant reading at 100 °C.
IV. Ethanol vapours and water vapours both rise up the column but water vapours condense in the fractionating column and drop back into the distillation flask.
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. II and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV
Answer : C
CBSE Class 9 Science Matter In Our Surroundings MCQs |
CBSE Class 9 Science Is Matter Around us Pure MCQs |
CBSE Class 9 Science Atoms and Molecules MCQs |
CBSE Class 9 Science Structure of Atom MCQs |
CBSE Class 9 Science Periodic Classification of Elements MCQs |
CBSE Class 9 Science The Fundamental Unit of Life MCQs |
CBSE Class 9 Science Tissue MCQs |
CBSE Class 9 Science Animal Tissues MCQs |
CBSE Class 9 Science Diversity In Living Organisms MCQs |
CBSE Class 9 Science Motion MCQs |
CBSE Class 9 Science Force and Laws of Motion MCQs |
CBSE Class 9 Science Gravitation MCQs |
CBSE Class 9 Science Work and Energy MCQs |
CBSE Class 9 Science Sound MCQs |
CBSE Class 9 Science Why Do We Fall Ill MCQs |
CBSE Class 9 Science Natural Resources MCQs |
CBSE Class 9 Science Improvement In Food Resources MCQs |
MCQs for NSO Olympiad Science Class 9
Expert teachers of studiestoday have referred to NCERT book for Class 9 Science to develop the Science Class 9 MCQs. If you download MCQs with answers for the above chapter you will get higher and better marks in Class 9 test and exams in the current year as you will be able to have stronger understanding of all concepts. Daily Multiple Choice Questions practice of Science will help students to have stronger understanding of all concepts and also make them expert on all critical topics. After solving the questions given in the MCQs which have been developed as per latest books also refer to the NCERT solutions for Class 9 Science. We have also provided lot of MCQ questions for Class 9 Science so that you can solve questions relating to all topics given in each chapter. After solving these you should also refer to Class 9 Science MCQ Test for the same chapter.
You can download the CBSE MCQs for Class 9 Science NSO Olympiad for latest session from StudiesToday.com
Yes, the MCQs issued by CBSE for Class 9 Science NSO Olympiad have been made available here for latest academic session
You can find CBSE Class 9 Science NSO Olympiad MCQs on educational websites like studiestoday.com, online tutoring platforms, and in sample question papers provided on this website.
To prepare for NSO Olympiad MCQs, refer to the concepts links provided by our teachers and download sample papers for free.
Yes, there are many online resources that we have provided on studiestoday.com available such as practice worksheets, question papers, and online tests for learning MCQs for Class 9 Science NSO Olympiad