Refer to CBSE Class 9 Science NSO Olympiad MCQs with Answers Set D provided below available for download in Pdf. The MCQ Questions for Class 9 Science with answers are aligned as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern suggested by CBSE, NCERT and KVS. Multiple Choice Questions for NSO Olympiad are an important part of exams for Class 9 Science and if practiced properly can help you to improve your understanding and get higher marks. Refer to more Chapter-wise MCQs for CBSE Class 9 Science and also download more latest study material for all subjects
MCQ for Class 9 Science NSO Olympiad
Class 9 Science students should refer to the following multiple-choice questions with answers for NSO Olympiad in Class 9.
NSO Olympiad MCQ Questions Class 9 Science with Answers
Logical Reasoning
Question. Find the missing number, if a certain rule is followed in all the three figures
Answer : A
Question. Find the correct water-image of Fig. (X) from the given options
Answer : B
Question. Four people P, Q, R and S live on the same side of a street in four houses each of different colour. Each person has a different favourite drink.
(i) P lives in the red house.
(ii) Q drinks tea.
(iii) R lives in the first house on the left.
(iv) In the second house from the right, milk is the favourite drink.
(v) R lives adjacent to the blue house.
(vi) S drinks fruit juice.
(vii) Tea is the favourite drink in the blue house.
(viii) The white house is to the right of the red house.
Which of the following statements is not true ?
A. Milk is the favourite drink in the red house.
B. Q lives in the blue house.
C. S lives in a corner house.
D. Q lives next to the S.
Answer : D
Question. The following digits are coded as follows
While coding the number, following conditions are also to be observed.
(i) If 5 or 2 occurs in the just middle of the number, then it is to be coded as X.
(ii) If the first digit of the number is a prime number, then it is to be coded as Y.
(iii) If the first digit of the number is odd but not a prime number, then it is to be coded as A.
(iv) If the first digit of the number is even and the last digit be zero, then each of the both is to be coded as Z.
(v) If 6 or 9 is neither at the first place or last place, then it is to be coded as B.
8 2 6 4 9 3 0
A. VHPMRDK
B. ZHPMRDZ
C. ZHPMRDK
D. N one of these
Answer : D
Question. In which of the following figures, Fig. (X) is exactly embedded as one of its part?
Answer : C
Question. If the first digit of each number replaces the third digit of that number, third digit replaces the second digit and the second digit replaces the first digit, and then the numbers thus formed are arranged in the descending order, then which number will be the third?
382 473 568 728 847 629
A. 568
B. 382
C. 473
D. 847
Answer : A
Question. Find the number of triangles formed in the given figure.
A. 26
B. 28
C. 24
D. None of these
Answer : A
Question. Which of the following figures satisfies the same condition of placement of the dots as in Fig. (X)?
Answer : D
Question. If the given sequence is written in reverse order, then how many such numbers are there in the sequence, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a symbol?
R ■ T J L 2 $ D = M # 8 C % B < K 1 & A W ? P E + Q @ 7 F 6
A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. Three
Answer : C
Question. Select a figure from the options which will continue the same series as established by the Problem Figures
Answer : D
Science
Question. If the distance between earth and sun increases by 125% of its present value suddenly, then the duration of one year will be
A. 365 days
B. 25/16 × 365 days
C. 27/8 × 365 days
D. 9/4 × 365 days
Answer : D
Question. In a car race, car A takes 2 s less than car B and passes the finishing point with a velocity v more than the velocity with which car B passes the point. Both the cars start from rest and travel with constant accelerations of aA = 3 ms–2 and aB = 2 ms–2. The value of v is
A. 2.45 ms–1
B. 4.90 ms–1
C. 7.35 ms–1
D. 9.80 ms–1
Answer : B
Question. A violin string emits sound waves with a frequency of 850 Hz as shown in the given figure.
If the speed of sound in air is 340 m s–1, the distance between points A and B is
A. 6 m
B. 7 m
C. 60 cm
D. 70 cm
Answer : D
Question. An object is put in turn, in three liquids having different densities. The object floats with 3/5, 2/9 and 8/11 parts of its volume inside the liquid surface in liquids of densities r1, r2 and r3 respectively. Which of the following is correct?
A. r1 > r2 > r3
B. r3 < r1 < r2
C. r3 > r1 > r2
D. r1 < r3 < r2
Answer : B
Question. A car of mass 1000 kg rests on a horizontal road initially. It is then pushed over 5 m to a speed of 1 ms–1 before the engine is started. If the average frictional force acting on the car is 500 N, the total work done in moving the car before the driver starts the engine, is
A. 500 J
B. 2500 J
C. 3000 J
D. 3500 J
Answer : C
Question. The image of an object O is being observed in a mirror. Which of the following is the correct ray diagram?
Answer : A
Question. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1 : Force of friction between two surfaces depends on the area of contact common to the two surfaces.
Statement 2 : More the area of contact common to the two surfaces, more is the opposition to the motion.
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Answer : D
Question. Match the column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.
Column I Column II
(a) A child running to catch the school bus (i) For c e c an make a stationary object move
(b) A man blowing a balloon (ii) Force can stop a moving object
(c) A woman pushing a table (iii) Force can change the shape of an object
(d) A cricketer catching a ball (iv) Force can make an object move faster
A. (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
B. (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
C. (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
D. (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
Answer : A
Question. Two spheres of the same size but different masses make head-on collisions. The black sphere is half the mass of the white sphere. In each collision, one of the masses is initially at rest and both masses move after the collision.
Which of the situations shows a possible collision?
Answer : C
Question. When a body is projected vertically up from the ground, its potential energy and kinetic energy at a point P are in the ratio 1:5. If same body is projected with half the previous velocity, then at the same point P, ratio of its potential energy and kinetic energy would be
A. 1 : 2
B. 2 : 1
C. 1 : 5
D. 2 : 5
Answer : B
Question. A book of mass m is lying on a table. It is then placed on the top shelf of a book rack by three different persons. The paths followed by the book as it is carried by three different persons is shown in the given figure.
The work done by the gravitational force on the book is maximum for
A. Path 1
B. Path 2
C. Path 3
D. It is same for all the three paths.
Answer : D
Question. Planets in our solar system are classified as inner and outer planets. Which of the following is incorrect about them?
A. O uter planets are large in size whereas inner planets are comparatively smaller.
B. O uter planets have rings orbiting them while inner planets do not have.
C. O uter planets do not have moons orbiting them while inner planets have.
D. O uter planets spin quicker than inner planets
Answer : C
Question. Diagrams W, X and Y show how the particles of a substance are packed at different temperatures.
The given graph shows changes in the state of a substance on heating. In which region of the graph would all the particles be packed as in Y?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
Answer : C
Question. Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option.
1. Although p is obtained from a natural source (wood pulp), yet it is a man-made fibre.
2. q was prepared from coal, water and air, its thread is stronger than a steel wire.
3. r does not get wrinkled easily, remains crisp and is easy to wash.
p q r
A. Acrylic Bakelite Cotton
B. Rayon Nylon Polyester
C. Silk Rayon Terylene
D. Melamine PVC Polycot
Answer : B
Question. Match the column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.
Column I Column II
P. Foam (i) Butter
Q. Aerosol (ii) Face cream
R. Gel (iii) Milk of magnesia
S. Emulsion (iv) Sponge
T. Sol (v) Automobile exhaust
P Q R S T
A. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (v)
B. (v) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
C. (iii) (ii) (iv) (v) (i)
D. (iv) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)
Answer : D
Question. Reena has arranged the following experimental set-up to observe the reactivity of different metals.
Answer : B
Question. Ninhydrin having molecular formula C9H6O4, is commonly used by forensic scientists to detect and analyse fingerprints. The number of molecules in 7.4 g of ninhydrin is
(Atomic mass of C = 12 u, H = 1 u, O = 16 u)
A. 1.5 × 1022
B. 2.5 × 1023
C. 2.5 × 1022
D. 4.2 × 1023
Answer : C
Question. Mass spectrum of lead is given as
The relative atomic mass of lead is
A. 208
B. 207.567
C. 207.302
D. 209
Answer : C
Question. The given diagram shows the fractional distillation of crude oil.
Mark the correct option.
Y condenses X has higher boiling
before X point than Y
A. Yes Yes
B. Yes No
C. No Yes
D. No No
Answer : B
Question. Four samples P, Q, R and S were analysed using paper chromatography to check the presence of three different additives X, Y and Z.
The final chromatograms are shown a
Read the following statements carefully.
I. P contains three components out of which one is X.
II. S contains only one component which is X.
III. Q contains two components which are X and Z.
IV. R contains two components out of which one is Y.
The correct statements are
A. II and IV
B. I and III
C. I, II and IV
D. All of these
Answer : C
Question. Substances which vapourise while burning give flame.
To verify this fact, Rahul conducted an experiment and recorded his observations in the given table.
S. No. | Material | Does not form flame |
1 | Candle | x |
2 | Magnesium | ✔ |
3 | Camphor | x |
4 | Kerosene stove | ✔ |
5 | Charcoal | x |
Find the incorrect observations.
A. 2, 4 and 5
B. 1 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 5
D. N one of these
Answer : A
Question. Find the incorrect match.
A. Brass – Copper and Tin
B. German silver – Copper, Zinc and Nickel
C. Solder – Lead and Tin
D. Stainless steel – Iron, Chromium and Nickel
Answer : A
Question. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the organisms P, Q and R shown in the picture?
A. O rganism P is a protozoan which captures and eats its prey with the help of its flagella.
B. O rganisms P and R cannot manufacture their food as they do not possess chlorophyll.
C. O rganism R is multicellular and obtains its food from dead and decaying organic matter.
D. O rganism Q is an alga found in deep ocean water.
Answer : C
Question. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.
Column I Column II
P. An Indian breed of (i) Increase in milk buffalo production
Q. Blue revolution (ii) Murrah
R. White revolution (iii) Brown Swiss
S. An exotic breed of (iv) Increase in fish cattle production
T. Indigenous breed of (v) Aseel poultry
A. P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(iii), T-(v)
B. P-(v), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(iii), T-(ii)
C. P-(v), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii), T-(iii)
D. P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(v), T-(ii)
Answer : A
Question. Read the following statements.
(i) Irrigation protects the crops from both frost and hot air currents.
(ii) Plants can absorb nutrients mostly in dissolved form.
(iii) Excessive use of chemical fertilisers disturbs the balance of nutrients in the soil.
(iv) The process of loosening and turning the soil is called digging (or levelling).
(v) Rabi crops, such as paddy, require a lot of water and therefore they are sown at the beginning of the south-west monsoon, during June or July.
Select the incorrect combination of statements.
A. (i), (ii) and (iii) only
B. (iii), (iv) and (v) only
C. (iv) and (v) only
D. (iii) and (iv) only
Answer : C
Question. Refer to the given figures, P and Q and answer the following question.
How do reproductive cells of P differ from those of Q in terms of their production and modes of storage?
A. Mature reproductive cells of P can get stored for longer periods in reproductive tract whereas in Q, only immature reproductive cells remain stored.
B. P produces fewer reproductive cells than Q does.
C. Reproductive cells produced by P do not show motility.
D. Q produces reproductive cells for a longer period in an individual’s life span than P does.
Answer : A
Question. Based on the given features, identify the cell organelle and select the correct option regarding it.
• It is single membrane bound cell organelle.
• Enzymes of this cell organelle resorbed the tail of tadpole during metamorphosis.
A. The cell organelle is formed by the joint activity of ER and Golgi apparatus.
B. The cell organelle is present in almost all the animal cells except mature mammalian RBCs.
C. The cell organelle is equally abundant in plant and animal cells.
D. Both A and B
Answer : D
Question. The materials commonly used for staining and mounting human cheek cells are respectively
A. Safranin and glycerine
B. Methylene blue and glycerine
C. Safranin and methylene blue
D. Fast green and glycerine.
Answer : B
Question. Conversion of fertile land into desert is called desertification. Which of the following is not a consequence of desertification?
A. Decrease in the water holding capacity of soil
B. Increased chances of floods
C. Increase in the temperature of earth
D. Decrease in the concentration of carbon dioxide in atmosphere
Answer : D
Question. The matrix of bone is in the form of thin concentric rings, called _______. Bone cells, called _______ are present in fluid-filled spaces called _______. These fluid-filled spaces of the bone communicate with each other by network of fine canals, called _______.
Select the correct sequence of words to complete the above passage.
A. Lacunae, Osteoblasts, Lamellae, Canaliculi
B. Lamellae, Osteocytes, Lacunae, Canaliculi
C. Lamellae, Chondrocytes, Canaliculi, Lacunae
D. Lacunae, Adipocytes, Canaliculi, Sarcoplasm
Answer : B
Question. Refer to the given flow chart.
Select the incorrect statement regarding P, Q, R, S and T.
A. P can be Thiobacillus or Clostridium and Q can be Euglena or Paramecium.
B. R can be Aspergillus or Claviceps.
C. S can be Sphagnum or Salvinia.
D. T can be Pinus or Azadirachta.
Answer : C
Question. Study the given table carefully and select the option that correctly fills up the blanks P, Q, R and S.
Disease | Causative organism | Symptoms |
Hepatitis | Virus | P |
Elephantiasis | Q | Swelling of legs or other body parts. |
R | Protozoan | Fever, fatigue, enlargement of liver, spleen etc. |
Ringworm | S | Scaly and itchy skin |
A. P-Acute inflammation of liver, Q-Worm, R-Kalaazar, S-Fungus.
B. P-Ulcers in stomach and duodenum, Q-Protozoan, R-Malaria, S-Virus.
C. P-Painful contraction of muscles of throat and chest, Q-Bacterium, R-Sleeping sickness, S-Fungus.
D. P-Reduction in natural immunity of body, Q-Fungus, R-Anthrax, S-Bacterium.
Answer : A
Question. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1 : Pesticides like DDT enter the food chains and their concentration goes on increasing from one trophic level to the next.
Statement 2 : Pesticides like DDT are non-biodegradable organic compounds which are not metabolised within the organisms' body and get stored in their body tissues.
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
C. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Answer : A
Question. Read the following statements (a – c) and select the option which correctly fills up the blanks in these statements.
(a) An organism that transmits a disease from an infected person to a healthy person is called (i) .
(b) Poliomyelitis is a (ii) disease and anthrax is a (iii) disease.
(c) Allergic diseases (e.g. asthma) are (iv) . diseases.
A. (i)-Secondary host, (ii)-Viral, (iii)-Bacterial, (iv)-Communicable
B. (i)-Vector, (ii)-Bacterial, (iii)-Fungal, (iv)-Communicable
C. (i)-Vector, (ii)-Viral, (iii)-Bacterial, (iv)-Non-communicable
D. (i)-Parasite, (ii)-Bacterial, (iii)-Protozoan, (iv)-Infectious
Answer : C
Question. Which of the following statements is not true?
A. Ozone layer occurs naturally in the stratosphere.
B. Chlorofluorocarbons are the major ozone depleting substances which produce active chlorine radicals in the presence of UV radiations.
C. Thinning of ozone layer allows more UV radiations to pass through it and cause harmful effects on humans, plants and animals.
D. The region of the stratosphere that contains relatively high concentration of ozone is called troposphere.
Answer : D
Achievers Section
Direction : Refer to the given dichotomous key and answer the questions 46 and 47.
(I) (a) Cellular level of body organisation is present – Go to V (a)
(b) Tissue/organ level of body organisation is present – Go to II
(II) (a) Radial symmetry is present – Go to V (b)
(b) Bilateral symmetry is present – Go to III (a)
(III) (a) It is acoelomate – Go to IV (a)
(b) It is true coelomate – Go to IV (b)
(IV) (a) It is triploblastic and parasitic – P
(b) It is segmented and sanguivorous – Q
(V) (a) It is found in deep sea waters and is a costly wedding gift in Japan – R
(b) It is a freshwater polyp – S
Question. Identify organisms P, Q, R and S.
P Q R S
A. Fasciola Hirudinaria Euplectella Hydra
B. Euspongia Wuchereria Limax Palaemon
C. Loligo Asterias Tubifex Ascaris
D. Nereis Scolopendra Adamsia Sepia
Answer : A
Question. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the given dichotomous key?
A. The body of organism P is perforated by numerous pores called ostia.
B. The excretory system of Q consists of characteristic flame cells or protonephridia.
C. The body wall of S consists of special stinging cells called cnidoblasts.
D. Body of R bears paired locomotory appendages called parapodia.
Answer : C
Question. Fill in the blanks by choosing an appropriate option.
A body sinks when its weight is (i) than the buoyant force acting on it. A body floats when its weight is (ii) than the buoyant force acting on it. A body sinks if the density of the body is (iii) than the density of liquid. A body floats if the density of the body is (iv) than the density of liquid.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
A. More Less Less More
B. More Less More Less
C. Less More Less More
D. Less More More Less
Answer : B
Question. Figure shows the position-time graph of a particle of mass 5 kg. The force acting on the particle for 0 < t < 4 s and 8 s < t < 12 s, respectively are
A. 5 N, 5 N
B. 5 N, 7.5 N
C. 5 N, 10 N
D. 0 N, 0 N
Answer : D
Question. Observe the given curve carefully and mark the correct statement.
A. T1 is the melting point and dry ice changes to CO2 gas from time t1 to t2.
B. T1 is the boiling point and water vapours change to water from time t1 to t2.
C. T1 is the freezing point and molten copper(II) sulphate changes to solid copper(II) sulphate from time t1 to t2.
D. T1 is the melting point and solid copper (II) sulphate changes to molten copper(II) sulphate from time t1 to t2.
Answer : C
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MCQs for Science CBSE Class 9 NSO Olympiad
Expert teachers of studiestoday have referred to NCERT book for Class 9 Science to develop the Science Class 9 MCQs. If you download MCQs with answers for the above chapter daily, you will get higher and better marks in Class 9 test and exams in the current year as you will be able to have stronger understanding of all concepts. Daily Multiple Choice Questions practice of Science and its study material will help students to have stronger understanding of all concepts and also make them expert on all critical topics. After solving the questions given in the MCQs which have been developed as per latest course books also refer to the NCERT solutions for Class 9 Science designed by our teachers
NSO Olympiad MCQs Science CBSE Class 9
All MCQs given above for Class 9 Science have been made as per the latest syllabus and books issued for the current academic year. The students of Class 9 can refer to the answers which have been also provided by our teachers for all MCQs of Science so that you are able to solve the questions and then compare your answers with the solutions provided by us. We have also provided lot of MCQ questions for Class 9 Science so that you can solve questions relating to all topics given in each chapter. All study material for Class 9 Science students have been given on studiestoday.
NSO Olympiad CBSE Class 9 MCQs Science
Regular MCQs practice helps to gain more practice in solving questions to obtain a more comprehensive understanding of NSO Olympiad concepts. MCQs play an important role in developing understanding of NSO Olympiad in CBSE Class 9. Students can download and save or print all the MCQs, printable assignments, practice sheets of the above chapter in Class 9 Science in Pdf format from studiestoday. You can print or read them online on your computer or mobile or any other device. After solving these you should also refer to Class 9 Science MCQ Test for the same chapter
CBSE MCQs Science Class 9 NSO Olympiad
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Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) for NSO Olympiad Class 9 Science are objective-based questions which provide multiple answer options, and students are required to choose the correct answer from the given choices.
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