CBSE Class 9 Science NSO Olympiad MCQs with Answers Set I

Logical Reasoning

Question. How many meaningful words can be made from the letters N, R, E and A, using each letter only once?
A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. Three
Answer : C

Question. Select a figure from the options which satisfies the same conditions of placement of dots as in the given figure.

Answer : D

Question. If in a certain code language, AMENDMENT is written as 89, then how will LANGUAGE be written in that language?
A. 65
B. 68
C. 72
D. 58
Answer : B

Question. Select the correct water image of the given combination of letters and numbers.

Answer : B

Question. Find the missing number.

A. 282
B. 352
C. 327
D. 325
Answer : B

Question. Read the given statements carefully and answer the following question.
(i) A # B means B is at 1 metre to the right of A.
(ii) A $ B means B is at 1 metre to the North of A.
(iii) A * B means B is at 1 metre to the left of A.
(iv) A £ B means B is at 1 metre to the South of A.
According to M # N $ T, T is in which direction with respect to M, if M is facing North ?
A. North-West
B. North-East
C. South-West
D. South-East
Answer : B

Question. A square transparent sheet with a pattern and a dotted line on it is given. Select a figure from the options which shows the folded form of the given sheet.

Answer : A

Question. There is a certain relationship between figures (1) and (2). Establish the same relationship between figures (3) and (4) by selecting a suitable figure from the given options which will replace the (?) in figure (4).

Answer : C

Question. Rahul is the son of Priya. Reema is the daughter of Rahul. Reeta is the paternal aunt of Reema and Raj is the son of Reeta. What is Raj’s relation with Priya?
A. Grandson
B. Brother
C. Son
D. Nephew
Answer : A

Question. Four positions of a dice are given below. Which letter will be on the face opposite to the face having letter A?

Answer : B

Science

Question. A body of mass 1 kg is placed at a distance of 2 m from another body of mass 10 kg. At what distance from the body of 1 kg, another body of mass 5 kg should be placed so that the net force of gravitation acting on the body of mass 1 kg is zero?
A. 1 m
B. 1.5 m
C. √2 m
D. √3 m
Answer : C

Question. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. Sound wave does not follow the same law of reflection as light does.
II. Tone is a sound of a single frequency while note is a mixture of several frequencies.
III. Infrasonic waves are used in SONAR.
IV. The numerical ratio of displacement to distance for a moving object is always less than one.
V. The value of acceleration due to gravity is least on equator.
A. II only
B. I, II and III only
C. IV and V only
D. II and V only
Answer : D

Question. Match Column I with Column II and select the correct option from given codes.

A. P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iv), S-(iii)
B. P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(iv)
C. P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(ii)
D. P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii)
Answer : D

Question. Two particles begin to fall freely from the same height but the second falls t0 seconds after the first. Find the time (after dropping of first) when separation between the particles is h₀.

Answer : C

Question. The given figure shows a heavy block of mass M kept on a frictionless surface and being pulled by two ropes of equal mass m. At t = 5 s, the force on the left rope is withdrawn but the force on the right end continues to act. Find the magnitude of the force by the right rope on the block

Answer : B

Question. A block of metal weighing 2 kg is resting on a frictionless plane. It is struck by a jet releasing water at the rate of 1 kg s^–1 and at a speed of 5 m s^–1. The initial acceleration of the block is
A. 7.5 m s^–2
B. 1.25 m s^–2
C. 5 m s^–2
D. 2.5 m s^–2
Answer : D

Question. Two mirrors P and Q are placed at right angles to each other as shown in the figure

A ray of light incident on mirror P at an angle of 25° falls on mirror Q after reflection. The angle of reflection for the ray reflected from mirror Q would be
A. 25°
B. 50°
C. 65°
D. 115°
Answer : C

Question. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. An electroscope is a device which is used to measure the charge on an object.
II. The movement of earth’s plates causes thunderstorm.
III. Speed of supersonic aircraft is equal to that of sound.
IV. A small amount of a mineral salt present naturally in water makes it conductor of electricity.
A. II only
B. I and II only
C. IV only
D. III and IV only
Answer : C

Question. For an oscillating pendulum of fixed length, which of the following is true ?
A. Frequency depends on amplitude of oscillation.
B. Frequency and time period are not related.
C. Time period depends on amplitude of oscillation.
D. Frequency and time period are related and do not depend on amplitude of oscillation.
Answer : D

Question. Two flies P and Q revolve around a light in concentric circular paths. The radius of circular path of P is twice of Q. P travels with a uniform linear speed of 4 m/s while Q travels with a uniform linear speed of 3 m/s. When P completes three full rounds, then Q would have completed
A. 4 rounds
B. 3 rounds
C. 2 rounds
D. 1 round.
Answer : A

Question. A pump on the ground floor of a building can pump up water to fill a tank of volume 30 m³ in 15 min. If the tank is 40 m above the ground, and the efficiency of the pump is 30%, then how much electric power is consumed by the pump? (Take g = 9.81 m/s²)
A. 100 kW
B. 43.60 kW
C. 50.60 kW
D. 87.20 kW
Answer : B

Question. A man is running towards a plane mirror at a speed of 4 m s^–1. The speed of man with respect to its image formed in the mirror will be

A. 2 m s^–1
B. 8 m s^–1
C. 6 m s^–1
D. None of these.
Answer : B

Question. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1 : A mixture of acetone and methanol can be separated by fractional distillation.
Statement 2 : The difference between their boiling points is very less. 
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
C. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Answer : A

Question. Ms. Ritu, a science teacher has set up an experiment as shown in the figure.

Which of the following represent the incorrect observations?
(i) Both the metal strips dissolve in beaker III.
(ii) Reaction takes place in beaker II.
(iii) No reaction takes place in beaker I.
(iv) Sn strip will dissolve faster than Zn in beaker II.
(v) Reaction occurs in beaker I but no colour change is observed.
A. (ii) and (v) only
B. (iii) and (iv) only
C. (i) and (iii) only
D. (ii), (iv) and (v) only
Answer : D

Question. Ms. Sarika, a class 9 teacher has tabulated melting and boiling points of five substances P to T in the given table. (Assume room temperature as 30°C).

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
I. Substance P exists in gaseous state while substance S exists in liquid state at room temperature.
II. Substance R will start turning from a liquid to a solid at 4°C.
III. Substance Q is in liquid state at room temperature and it will start changing to gaseous state at 37°C.
IV. Substance T exists in solid state at room temperature.
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. I only
D. III and IV only
Answer : A

Question. The given petroleum products are extracted by using the fractionating column :
Gasoline, Diesel, Kerosene, Petroleum gas 

Arrange these products as extracted from top to the bottom of the column.
A. Petroleum gas, Kerosene, Gasoline, Diesel
B. Gasoline, Petroleum gas, Diesel, Kerosene
C. Kerosene, Diesel, Petroleum gas, Gasoline
D. Petroleum gas, Gasoline, Kerosene, Diesel
Answer : D

Question. Match column I with column II and select the correctop tion from the given codes.
          Column I                           Column II
P. 0.25 mole of O₂          (i) 6.022 × 10²³ molecules
Q. 18 g of water             (ii) 1.505 × 10²³ molecules
R. 46 g of Na atoms       (iii) 6.022 × 10²³ atoms
S. 1 mole of C atoms     (iv) 12.044 × 10²³ atoms
A. P - (iii), Q - (ii), R - (iv), S - (i)
B. P - (ii), Q - (iv), R - (iii), S - (i)
C. P - (ii), Q - (i), R - (iv), S - (iii)
D. P - (i), Q - (iii), R - (ii), S - (iv)
Answer : C

Question. Study the given table carefully and select the incorrect statement(s).

I. S and T are cations.
II. R is the lightest element while U is the heaviest element.
III. P is a noble gas.
IV. Q and U are anions.
A. II only
B. I and IV only
C. I, III and IV only
D. III and IV only
Answer : C

Question. Study the given flow chart carefully and identify substances (i) to (iv)

       (i)              (ii)              (iii)                (iv)
A. Tin            Coal           LPG              Sodium
B. Alcohol    Camphor    Crackers        CNG
C. Paper      Iron nail      Candle           Petrol
D. Marble    Charcoal     Phosphorus   LPG
Answer : D

Question. Boiling points of a few gases found in air are given in the table.

If the liquid mixture of these gases is fractionally distilled, the order of gases distilling out is
A. Krypton, Neon, Nitrogen, Oxygen
B. Neon, Nitrogen, Oxygen, Krypton
C. Nitrogen, Neon, Oxygen, Krypton
D. Oxygen, Neon, Nitrogen, Krypton.
Answer : B

Question. Find the correct matches.
I. Formica – Thermoplastic
II. PVC – Insulator
III. Perspex – Transparent like glass
IV. Teflon – Chemically reactive
V. Polystyrene – Thermosetting
A. II and III only
B. I, IV and V only
C. II, III and IV only
D. None of these
Answer : A

Question. A sample of pure water, irrespective of its source contains 11.1% hydrogen and 88.9% oxygen. The data supports
A. Law of constant proportions
B. Law of conservation of mass
C. Law of reciprocal proportions
D. Law of multiple proportions.
Answer : A

Question. Identify crops X and Y from the given table and select the correct option regarding them.

A. Crop X could be wheat whereas crop Y could be cotton.
B. Crop X could be green gram whereas crop Y could be linseed.
C. Crop X could be groundnut whereas crop Y could be jute.
D. Crop X could be rice whereas crop Y could be soybean.
Answer : B

Question. Refer to the given structure of a prokaryotic cell and select the correct statement regarding it.

A. P is a layer of non-cellulosic polysaccharides.
B. Q is double layered in Gram +ve bacteria whereas it is single layered in Gram –ve bacteria.
C. R is an impermeable covering that restricts entry and exit of molecules into and out of the cell.
D. S could be tubular outgrowths that are involved in locomotion only.
Answer : A

Question. Refer to the given table and select the correct option regarding it

            X                          Y                             Z
A. Swollen RBC     Shrunken RBC        Normal RBC
B. Normal RBC      Shrunken RBC       Swollen RBC
C. Normal RBC      Swollen RBC          Shrunken RBC
D. Swollen RBC     Normal RBC           Shrunken RBC
Answer : B

Question. “X” is a type of transport across plasma membrane that occurs against the concentration gradient and it requires energy in the form of ATP.
Identify “X” and select the incorrect option regarding it.
A. Process X helps to maintain concentrations of ions and other substances within living cells.
B. Process X is very slow and could occur in opposite directions simultaneously.
C. Process X helps in selective uptake of materials.
D. Uptake of glucose and some amino acids by some cells occurs with the help of process X.
Answer : B

Question. Pulse polio immunisation programme was launched with an aim to eradicate polio disease. It involves simultaneous administration of polio drops (polio vaccine) to the high risk population on a single day throughout the nation. What is the basic objective of pulse polio immunisation programme?
A. To immunise those children who are not earlier immunised or are partially immunised.
B. To boost the immunity of children already immunised.
C. To eradicate the polio-causing virus from the world.
D. All of these
Answer : D

Question. Which of the following statements regarding the carbon cycle is correct?
A. Respiration is the first step of the carbon cycle as it converts abiotic carbon to organic carbon.
B. At least some carbon is removed from carbon cycle when dead animals and plants become fossilised and form fossil fuels.
C. All living organisms return carbon to the abiotic environment by respiration.
D. Tropical rainforests act as major carbon sinks of the carbon cycle due to their ability to liberate carbon dioxide into the environment when trees die and are decomposed.
Answer : C

Question. Select the option that correctly identifies X and Y in the given flow chart.

          X              Y
A. Ecological   BHC
B. Biological    Fertiliser
C. Biological    Heat
D. Ecological   Bacteria
Answer : C

Question. The matrix of bone is in the form of thin concentric rings, called _______. Bone cells, called _______ are present in fluid- filled spaces called _______. These fluid filled spaces of the bone communicate with each other by network of fine canals, called _______. Select the correct sequence of words to complete the above passage.
A. Lacunae, Osteoblasts, Lamellae, Canaliculi
B. Lamellae, Osteocytes, Lacunae, Canaliculi
C. Lamellae, Chondrocytes, Canaliculi, Lacunae
D. Lacunae, Adipocytes, Canaliculi, Sarcoplasm
Answer : B

Question. Identify X in the given statement and select the correct option regarding it.
“When soil is completely saturated with water and excess water accumulates around plant roots in the field, the condition is referred to as X”.
X could damage crops because
A. It reduces air spaces between soil particles
B. It cuts off oxygen supply to roots hence, they are not able to breathe
C. It increases amount of salt in the soil and reduces its fertility
D. All of these.
Answer : D

Question. Read the given statements and select the option that correctly identifies them as true (T) and false (F) ones.
I. Downy mildew in plants is caused by fungi.
II. Chlamydomonas and Fucus are unicellular algae whereas Polysiphonia and diatoms are multicellular.
III. Virus contains both DNA and RNA as genetic material.
IV. Citrus canker is a bacterial disease that is highly contagious.
     I    II    III    IV
A. F   T    T     F
B. T   F    T     F
C. T   F    F    T
D. F   F   T     T
Answer : C

Question. Study the given flow chart carefully

Which of the above species have been incorrectly placed?
A. (iv) and (vi) only
B. (ii), (iii) and (v) only
C. (i), (iv), (vii) and (viii) only
D. (ii), (iv) and (viii) only
Answer : A

Question. Identify cell organelles L and M and select the correct option related to their function in a cell.

Answer : A

Question. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.
    Column I                  Column II
P. Pituitary     (i) Controls secondary female characters
Q. Adrenal    (ii) Regulates basal metabolic rate
R. Ovary      (iii) Controls activities of other glands
S. Thyroid    (iv) Prepares body to fight
A. P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(i)
B. P-(iii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(ii)
C. P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii)
D. P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iv), S-(iii)
Answer : C

Achievers Section

Question. Observe the schematic atomic structures of three elements P, Q and R :

Which of the following statements are correct?
I. R can form RC_l3 and RC_l5.
II. Q exists in monatomic form.
III. P and R combine to form P₃R type of compound.
IV. P and Q combine to form PQ₂ type of compound.
V. P will gain two electrons to form a stable compound
A. III, IV and V only
B. I and II only
C. I, II and IV only
D. II, IV and V only
Answer : B

Question. Refer to the given graph which shows a variable force acting on a particle of mass 2 kg and fill in the blanks by selecting an appropriate option.

If the initial kinetic energy (at x = 0) of the particle is 25 J, then the kinetic energy of the particle at the end of 6 m and 16 m is (i) and (ii) respectively.
The momentum of the particle at the end of 10 m and 14 m is (iii) and (iv) respectively.
     (i)          (ii)          (iii)            (iv)
A. 30 J     25 J     √50 N s      √90 N s
B. 45 J     55 J     √70 N s     √50 N s
C. 55 J     35 J     √60 N s     2√55 Ns
D. 55 J     30 J     √90 N s    √110 N s
Answer : C

Question. The graph of velocity against time for a moving object is shown

Answer : C

Question. Two different fields X and Y were treated with two different substances to increase crop yield. Amount of humus in their respective fields was observed for a period of time as shown in the given graph

Select the incorrect statement regarding substances applied in both fields X and Y.
A. Substance applied in field X removes general deficiency of soil whereas the one applied in field Y provides only specific essential nutrients to the soil.
B. Substance applied in field X is readily absorbed by the crop plants whereas that applied in field Y is absorbed slowly.
C. Substance applied in field X is cheap and can be prepared in rural homes whereas that applied in field Y is prepared in factories.
D. Substance applied in field X does not cause pollution but that applied in field Y causes pollution.
Answer : B

Question. Identify M-P in the given flow chart and select the correct statement regarding them.

A. M could be Obelia whereas N could be Sycon.
B. N could be Fasciola whereas O could be Ancylostoma.
C. M could be Pheretima whereas P could be Chiton.
D. P could be Taenia whereas O could be Ascaris.
Answer : B