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Worksheet for Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Reproductive Health
Class 12 Biology students should refer to the following printable worksheet in Pdf for Chapter 4 Reproductive Health in Class 12. This test paper with questions and answers for Class 12 will be very useful for exams and help you to score good marks
Class 12 Biology Worksheet for Chapter 4 Reproductive Health
Reproductive Health MCQ Questions with Answers Class 12 Biology
Question. Which of the following is traditional method of contraception?
(a) Implantation
(b) Lactational amenorrhoea
(c) Condoms
(d) Sterilization
Answer: B
Question. Tying up or removing a small part of fallopian duct is called
(a) vasectomy
(b) ductus arteriosus
(c) archidectomy
(d) tubectomy
Answer: D
Question. ‘Saheli’ a new oral contraceptive developed by
(a) All Indian Institute of Medical Science
(b) Central Drug Research Institute
(c) Health Care Pvt. Ltd.
(d) Bharat Immunologicals & Biologicals corp. Ltd.
Answer: B
Question. MTPs are considered relatively safe during the ______weeks of pregnancy.
(a) 12
(b) 15
(c) 18
(d) 20
Answer: A
Question. According to which of the following organization "reproductive health means a total well-being in all aspects of reproduction"?
(a) WHL
(b) UNESCO
(c) WHO
(d) WWW
Answer: C
Question. STD/VD/UTI are
(a) devices which are used to delay the pregnancy.
(b) infections which are caused by food contamination.
(c) diseases which are transmitted through sexual intercourse.
(d) action plans and programmes to create awareness about various reproductive related health and problems.
Answer: C
Question. Which of the following contraceptive also provides protection from contacting STDs and AIDS ?
(a) Diaphragms
(b) Spermicidal foams
(c) Condoms(d)
Lactational amenorrhoea
Answer: C
Question. The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in Assisted Reproductive Technology is called
(a) GIFT
(b) ZIFT
(c) ICSI
(d) ET
Answer: C
Question. Lactational amenorrhoea means
(a) absence of menstruation during pregnancy
(b) absence of menstruation during lactation
(c) excessive bleeding during menstruation
(d) no production and secretion of milk
Answer: B
Question. In-vitro fertilization involves transfer of ____ into the fallopian tube.
(a) embryo up to eight cell stage
(b) embryo of thirty-two cell stage
(c) zygote
(d) either zygote or embryo up to eight cell stage
Answer: D
Question. Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the
(a) suppression of gonadotropins
(b) hyper secretion of gonadotropins
(c) suppression of gametic transport
(d) suppression of fertilisation
Answer: A
Question. From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned below, identify the one which does not specifically affect the sex organs.
(a) Syphilis
(b) AIDS
(c) Gonorrhoea
(d) Genital warts
Answer: B
Question. Which of the following STDs are caused by bacteria?
(a) AIDS and Genital Herpes
(b) Syphilis and gonorrhoea
(c) Trichomoniasis and scabies
(d) All of these
Answer: B
Question. Which of the followings is example of hormone releasing IUDs?
(a) CuT and Multilobed 375
(b) LNG-20 and Progestasert
(c) Lippe’s loop
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer: B
Question. Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within
(a) 72 hrs of coitus
(b) 72 hrs of ovulation
(c) 72 hrs of menstruation
(d) 72 hrs of implantation
Answer: A
Question. Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by females. Choose the correct option from the statements given below:
(i) They are introduced into the uterus
(ii) They are placed to cover the cervical region
(iii) They act as physical barriers for sperm entry
(iv) They act as spermicidal agents
Choose the correct option:
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
Answer: C
Question. Choose the right one among the statements given below.
(a) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself
(b) IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus
(c) IUDs suppress gametogenesis
(d) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced
Answer: B
Question. Which of the following is/are barrier method of contraception?
(a) Rhythm method/Periodic abstinence
(b) Lactational amenorrhea
(c) Withdrawal method
(d) None of these
Answer: D
Question. Medical Termination of Pregnancy is safe up to
(a) 8 weeks of pregnancy
(b) 12 weeks of pregnancy
(c) 18 weeks of pregnancy
(d) 24 weeks of pregnancy
Answer: B
Question. Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population will
(a) cause rapid increase in growth rate
(b) result in decline in growth rate
(c) not cause significant change in growth rate
(d) result in an explosive population
Answer: C
Question. IUDs release copper ions to
(a) prevent ovulation
(b) suppress mortality
(c) increase phagocytosis of sperm
(d) make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.
Answer: B
Question. Following statements are given regarding MTP.
(i) MTPs are generally advised during first trimester
(ii) MTPs are used as a contraceptive method
(iii) MTPs are always surgical
(iv) MTPs require the assistance of qualified medical personnel
Choose the correct option.
(a) (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (ii)
Answer: C
Question. Sterilisation techniques are generally fool proof methods of contraception with least side effects.
Yet, this is the last option for the couples because
(i) it is almost irreversible
(ii) of the misconception that it will reduce sexual urge
(iii) it is a surgical procedure
(iv) of lack of sufficient facilities in many parts of the country
Choose the correct option.
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: D
Question. Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives because of the following reasons.
(a) These are effective barriers for insemination
(b) They do not interfere with coital act
(c) These help in reducing the risk of STDs
(d) All of the above
Answer: D
Question. Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which
(a) one fallopian tube is removed
(b) both fallopian tubes are removed
(c) small part of fallopian tube is removed
(d) small part of vas deferens is removed
Answer: C
Question. Choose the correct statement regarding the ZIFT procedure.
(a) Ova collected from a female donor are transferred to the fallopian tube to facilitate zygote formation.
(b) Zygote is collected from a female donor and transferred to the fallopian tube
(c) Zygote is collected from a female donor and transferred to the uterus
(d) Ova collected from a female donor and transferred to the uterus
Answer: B
Question. Which of the following is not a cause of population explosion in India?
(a) Better health care
(b) Increased IMR
(c) Decline MMR
(d) Increased population of reproductive age
Answer: D
Question. A national level approach to build up a reproductively healthy society was taken up in our country in
(a) 1950s
(b) 1960s
(c) 1980s
(d) 1990s
Answer: A
Question. The correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive method is
(a) ovariectomy
(b) hysterectomy
(c) vasectomy
(d) castration
Answer: C
Question. World AIDS day is
(a) December 21
(b) December 1
(c) November 1
(d) June 11
Answer: B
Question. Progestasert and LNG-20 are
(a) implants
(b) copper releasing IUDs
(c) non-medicated IUDs
(d) hormone releasing IUDs
Answer: D
Question. The transfer of zygote or early embryo (up to 8 blastomeres) into fallopian tube is called _________.
(a) IVF and ET
(b) ZIFT
(c) GIFT
(d) IUT
Answer: B
Question. The family planning programmes in India were initiated in
(a) 1951
(b) 1961
(c) 1971
(d) 1981
Answer: A
Question. Artificial insemination mean
(a) transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing ova.
(b) artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina.
(c) introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly into the ovary.
(d) transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test tube containing ova.
Answer: B
Question. In which year, MTP was legalised in India?
(a) 1971
(b) 1951
(c) 1981
(d) 1923
Answer: A
Assertion Reason Questions:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
Question. Assertion: Pills are very effective contraceptive methods with lesser side effects.
Reason: Pills inhibit ovulation and implantation as well as retard entry of sperms.
Answer: B
Question. Assertion: Artificial insemination is the method of introduction of semen inside the female.
Reason: This technique is used in those cases where males have low sperm count.
Answer: A
Question. Assertion: Cu-T and Cu-7 do not suppress sperm-motility.
Reason: Hormones released by them do not affect sperm motility.
Answer: D
Question. Assertion: IUT is the transfer of embryo with more than 8 blastomeres into the fallopian tubes.
Reason: This is a very popular method of forming embryos in-vivo.
Answer: D
Question. Assertion: Amniocentesis is often misused
Reason: Amniocentesis is meant for determining the genetic disorders in the foetus, but it is being used to determine the sex of the foetus, leading to the death of the normal female foetus.
Answer: A
Question. Assertion: Saheli, the new oral contraceptive for the females, contains a steroidal preparation.
Reason: It is “once in a day” pill with very few side effects.
Answer: D
Question. Assertion: In zygote intra fallopian transfer the zygote is transferred to the fallopian tubes of the female.
Reason: ZIFT is an in vivo fertilisation method.
Answer: C
Diagram Based Question Answers:
1. Given diagram is the surgical methods of birth control. Answer the following related questions:
Question. Which structure is removed or tied up during vasectomy?
Answer: Two vasa deferens are interrupted by giving cuts or ligation.
Question. What type of semen is ejaculated by vasectomy in male?
Answer: Nature of semen is azoospermia and discharge is only composed of seminal plasma i.e., sex gland‟s secretion.
Question. What does the above figure depict?
Answer: The figure depicts vasectomy in male human beings.
Question. Does vasectomy prevent spermatogenesis in male?
Answer: No, vasectomy never prevents spermatogenesis but prevents the ejaculation of sperms.
2. Examine the given figure and answer the related questions that follows:
Question. Which structure of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up in tubectomy?
Answer: Two oviducts or fallopian tubes are interrupted by giving cuts or ligation.
Question. How does tubectomy act as a contraceptive method in females?
Answer: It always prevents the passage of ovum to the ampulla i.e., site of fertilization. Thus, prevent contraception.
Question. What does the above figure depict?
Answer: The given figure depicts tubectomy.
Question. Does tubectomy prevent ovulation in females?
Answer: No, tubectomy never prevents ovulation in female human beings but it blocks the movement of ovum toward the ampulla of fallopian tube or oviduct.
Very Short Answer Type Questions
Question. Reproductive health refers only to healthy reproductive functions. Comment.
Answer : According to the World Health Organisation (WHO), reproductive health means a total well-being in all aspects of reproduction, i.e., physical emotional, behavioural and social. Therefore, a society with people having physically and functionally normal reproductive organs and normal emotional and behavioural interactions among them in all sex-related
aspects might be called reproductively healthy.
Question. Give another name for sexually transmitted diseases. Name two sexually transmitted diseases which are curable and two diseases which are not curable.
Answer : Venereal disease (VD)/Reproductive tract infection (RTI). Curable-Syphilis, Gonorrhoea Non-Curable – Hepatitis B, AIDS
Question. Differentiate between Vasectomy and Tubectomy.
Answer : Vasectomy – Method of sterilization in males. Vas deferens of both sides cut and tied. Prevents movement of sperms at cut end Tubectomy – Method of sterilisation in females. Fallopian tube of both sides cut and tied. Prevents movement of egg at cut end.
Question. When is the medical termination of pregnancy advised by the doctors?
Answer : The medical termination of pregnancy is advised under the following circumstances:
If the pregnancy endangers the health (physical/mental) of the woman.
If the child is malformed or handicapped
In cases of rape
If the girl is unmarried, consent of the guardian is required.
In the case of mentally ill mothers
Question. Lactational Amenorrhea is a method of contraception. Justify. What is the maximum effectiveness of this method in terms of period/duration?
Answer : (a) Ovulation and menstrual cycle do not occur during the period of intense lactation following parturition. Therefore, as the mother breast feeds, chances of conception are nil.
(b) It is effective only up to a maximum period of six months following parturition.
Question. Justify the statement, “All reproductive tract infections are sexually transmitted diseases, but all sexually transmitted diseases are not reproductive tract infections.”
Answer : The reproductive tract infections are transferred from one partner to another during sexual intercourse. Hence called sexually transmitted diseases. For eg., gonorrhoea, genital herpes, syphilis, etc. However, some sexually transmitted diseases such as hepatitis, AIDS are transferred during sexual intercourse but do not cause any infections in the reproductive tract or genitals.
These are therefore not referred to as reproductive tract infections.
Question. Mention the various precautions one has to take in order to protect himself/herself from STDs.
Answer : (i) Avoid blood transfusion from an infected person. (ii) Avoid sex with an unknown partner and multiple partners. (iii) Always use a condom. (iv) Avoid sharing injections needles and syringes and surgical instruments.
Question. Justify the ban on amniocentesis in our country?
Answer : Amniocentesis is a technique in which the amniotic fluid is collected from the uterus with the help of a needle to determine any genetic abnormalities in the foetus by analysing the chromosomal patterns. This technique was being misused to know the gender of the foetus and if the foetus was a girl, it was aborted. To stop the female foeticide, amniocentesis was banned under Prenatal Diagnostics Technique Act in the year 1994.
Question. Name the hormone composition of oral contraceptives used by a human female. Explain how it act as a contraceptive?
Answer : Progesterone or progesterone- estrogen combination is used as an oral contraceptive by human females.
These pills inhibit ovulation as well as implantation. They also alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent or retard entry of sperms.
Question. How are Copper releasing IUDs different from Hormone releasing IUDs?
Answer : (a) Copper releasing IUDs (CuT, Multiload 325) These increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus and release copper ions which suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperm.
(c) Hormone releasing IUDs – Progestasert, LNG-20. These make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to sperms.
Question. What are the important features of an ideal contraceptive?
Answer : It is safe
It lasts long
It is cost-effective
It is highly effective
Its effect can be reversed
It is independent of coitus
It can be administered easily
Does not require any medical supervision
Question. Comment on the reproductive and child healthcare programme of the government to improve the reproductive health of the people.
Answer : India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at a national level to attain total reproductive health as a social goal.
These programmes called ‘family planning’ were initiated in 1951 and were periodically assessed over the past decades. Improved programmes covering wider
reproduction-related areas are currently in operation under the popular name ‘Reproductive and Child Healthcare (RCH) programmes’.
Creating awareness among people about various reproduction related aspects and providing facilities and support for building up a reproductively healthy society are the major
tasks under these programmes.
Question. STDs can be considered as self-invited diseases. Comment.
Answer : Diseases or infections which are transmitted through sexual intercourse are collectively called Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STD) or Venereal Diseases (VD) or Reproductive Tract Infections (RTI).
Though all persons are vulnerable to these infections, their incidences are reported to be very high among persons in the age group of 15-24 years. STDs can be considered as self-invited diseases because one could be free of these infections by following the simple principles given below.
(i) Avoid sex with unknown partners/multiple partners.
(ii) Always use condoms during coitus.
(iii) In case of doubt, one should go to a qualified doctor for early detection and get complete treatment if diagnosed with disease.
Question. Males in whom testes fail to descend to the scrotum are generally infertile. Why?
Answer : Since, the testes are very sensitive to temperature, if they do not descend into the scrotum prior to adolescence, then they will stop producing sperms that will lead to infertility in males.
Question. Mention two advantages of lactational amenorrhea as a contraceptive method.
Answer : The two advantages of lactational amenorrhea as a contraceptive method are mentioned as below
(i) If the mother is breast feeding completely, she would not ovulate, so chances of conception would be low.
(ii) She would not need to use any pill or devices for birth control. So, there will be no side effects.
Question. Suggest the reproduction-related aspects in which counselling should be provided at the school level.
Answer : In following aspects counselling should be provided at the school level (i) Introduction of sex education in school that helps in eradicating myths and misconceptions regarding sex-related aspects.
(ii) Proper information about reproductive organs, safe and hygienic sexual practices and Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs).
(iii) Awareness of problems due to uncontrolled population growth, social evils like sex-abuse and sex-related crimes, etc.
(iv) Educating people about available birth control options, care of pregnant mothers,
post-natal care of mother and child, importance of breast-feeding, equal opportunities for the male and female child.
Question. Mention the primary aim of the ‘Assisted Reproductive Technology’ (ART) programme.
Answer : ‘Assisted Reproductive Technology’ (ART) is the collection of certain special techniques.
The primary aim of the ART programme is to assist infertile couples to have children through certain special techniques (like ZIFT, IUT, GIFT, ICSI, AI, etc.) where corrective treatment is not possible.
Question. The present population growth rate in India is alarming. Suggest ways to check it.
Answer : The present population growth rate in India is alarming. Such an alarming growth rate could lead to an absolute scarcity of even the basic requirements, i.e., food, shelter and clothing, in spite of significant progress made in those areas.
Following are some important ways to overcome this problem
(i) By raising marriageable age of the female to 18 years and that of males to 21 years.
(ii) By promoting use of birth control measures to motivate smaller families.
(iii) By providing incentives to couples with small families.
(iv) By educating people about consequences of uncontrolled population growth.
Question. What is the significance of progesterone-estrogen combination as a contraceptive measure?
Answer : Progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations play an important role in contraception. They are used in the form of tablets or pills. They inhibit ovulation and hence implantation. They are also used by females as injections or implants under the skin. Their mode of action is similar to that of pills but their effective periods are longer.
Question. Strict conditions are to be followed in Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) procedures. Mention two reasons.
Answer : Strict conditions are to be followed in Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) procedures due to following two reasons
(a) to get rid of unwanted pregnancies.
(b) it is also essential when the foetus is suffering from an incurable disease or when continuation of the pregnancy could be harmful or even fatal to the mother and or foetus.
Short Answer Type Questions
Question. Suggest some important steps that you would recommend to be taken to improve the reproductive health standards in India.
Answer : Following measures are needed to be taken to improve the reproductive health standards in India
(i) Providing infrastructural facilities and professional expertise to attain reproductive health.
(ii) Educating people about birth control methods, care of pregnant mothers, importance of breast feeding, safe and hygienic sexual practices and safeguard against STDs.
(iii) Introduction of sex education in schools to give proper information to the young minds about sex-related aspects.
(iv) Help of audio-visual and print media to create awareness among people about reproduction related aspects.
(v) Awareness of problems due to population explosion, social evils like sex-abuse and sex-related crimes.
(vi) Statutory ban on amniocentesis to legally check female foeticides.
Question. Briefly explain IVF and ET, What are the conditions in which these methods are advised?
Answer : IVF refers to in vitro fertilisation and ET refers to embryo transfer. Gametes from the male and female are collected hygienically and induced to fuse in the laboratory set up under simulated conditions. The zygote formed is collected and is introduced into the uterus of a host or surrogate mother at an appropriate time (secretory phase). Early embryos (up to 8 cell) are generallytransf erred to the Fallopian tube whereas embryos with more than 8 cells are transferred to the uterus.
Question. What are the advantages of natural methods of contraception over artificial methods?
Answer : As no medicines or devices are used in these methods, side effects are almost nil.
Note Chances of failure of these methods are also high.
Question. The procedure of GIFT involves the transfer of female gamete to the Fallopian tube. Can gametes be transferred to the uterus to achieve the same result? Explain.
Answer : The procedure of GIFT involves the transfer of female gamete to the Fallopian tube.
Gametes cannot be transferred to the uterus to achieve the same result because the uterine environment is not congenial for the survival of the gamete.
If directly transferred to the uterus they will undergo degeneration or could be phagocytosed and hence, viable zygote would not be formed.
Question. Copper ions-releasing IUDs are more efficient than non-medicated methods. Why?
Answer : Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs) are inserted in the uterus through vagina and are presently available as the non-medicated IUDs,copper releasing IUDs and hormone releasing IUDs
Cu ions-releasing IUDs are more efficient methods because (i) Cu ions released suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms.
(ii) It increases phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
(iii) It is one of the safest, most effective, convenient and least expensive reversible contraceptives available.
(iv) It has no systemic effects and can be safely used by breast-feeding women.
Question. What are the probable factors that contributed to population explosion in India?
Answer : Following are some factors that have probably contributed to population explosion in India (i) Ignorance and complete lack of awareness about the ill effects of increasing population especially in rural regions.
(ii) Poverty and illiteracy
(iii) Social stigmas about girl child and desire to have boy child.
(iv) Decline in death rate.
(v) Decline in maternal and infant mortality rate.
(vi) Increase in the young, reproductive age population.
Question. What are the conditions in which medical termination of pregnancy is advised?
Answer : Medical termination of pregnancy is carried out to get rid of unwanted pregnancies. It is also essential when the foetus is suffering from an incurable disease or when continuation of the pregnancy could be harmful or even fatal to the mother and/or foetus.
Question. Comment on the essential features required for an ideal contraceptive.
Answer : An ideal contraceptive should
(i) be easily available
(ii) effective and reversible with least or no side effects
(iii) no interference with the sexual drive/desire or the sexual act of the user
(iv) be user-friendly
Question. All reproductive tract infections RTIs are STDs, but all STDs are not RTIs. Justify with example.
Answer : Among the common STDs, hepatitis-B and AIDS are not infections of the reproductive organs though their mode of transmission could be through sexual conact also.
All other diseases like gonorrhoea, syphilis, genital herpes, hepatitis-B are transmitted through sexual contact and are also infections of the reproductive tract so, there are STDs
and RTI, Whereas, AIDS and hepatitis are STDs but not RTI.
Long Answer Type Questions
Question. What are the assisted reproductive techniques practised to help infertile couples? Describe any three techniques.
Answer : ART techniques are described as follows
(i) Test-tube Baby Programmes In this method, ova from the wife/donor (female) and the sperms from the husband/donor (male) are collected and are induced to form zygote under simulated conditions in the laboratory. This process is called In Vitro Fertilisation (IVF).
The zygote or early embryo with upto 8 blastomeres is transferred into the Fallopian tube (process is called Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer or ZIFT) and embryo with more than 8 blastomeres is transferred into the uterus (process is called Intra Uterine Transfer or IUT).
In females who cannot conceive, embryos formed by fusion of gametes within the female (called in vivo fertilisation) are transferred.
(ii) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) It is the transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the Fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce one, but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation and further development of the embryo.
(iii) Artificial Insemination (Al) In this method, the semen collected either from the husband or a healthy donor is artificially introduced into the vagina or into the uterus (Intra Uterine Insemination or IUI).
This technique is used in cases where the male is unable to inseminate sperms in the female reproductive tract or due to very low sperm counts in the ejaculation.
Question. Discuss the mode of action and advantages/disadvantages of hormonal contraceptives.
Answer : Intra Uterine Devices are presently available as
(a) Non-medicated IUDs (e.g., Lippes loop).
(b) Copper releasing IUDs (e.g., Cu-T, Cu-7, Multiload 375).
(c) Hormone releasing IUDs (e.g., Progestasert, LNG-20).
Mode of Action of Hormonal Contraceptives
The hormones releasing IUDs, make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to the sperms. Progesterone can also be used as injections and implants (slow release of hormones) to inhibit ovulation.
Advantages of Hormonal Contraceptives
Administration of progestogens or progestogen-oestrogen combinations or IUDs within 72 hrs of intercourse have been found to be effective as emergency contraceptives as they could be used to avoid possible pregnancy due to rape or causal unprotected intercourse.
Disadvantages of Hormonal Contraceptives
(i) IUDs are suggested as ideal contraceptives for the females but they can have serious side effects.
(ii) Can cause allergic reaction.
(iii) If displaced, can cause tissue damage and profuse bleeding.
(iv) IUDs can damage the normal hormonal balance and later even if desired, pregnancy may not be achieved.
(v) Artificial intake can disrupt normal hormonal interactions in the body system.
Question. Do you justify the statutory ban on amniocentesis in our country? Give reasons.
Answer : Yes, the ban is necessary because amniocentesis is misused now-a-days. It is used to determine the sex of the foetus and in many cases it led to female foeticide. It became so serious that it disturbed the male female ratio that can have a negative impact on society.
The test is actually meant to determine the genetic defects or metabolic disorders in foetus by doing a chromosomal analysis. In such extreme cases that would be incurable, a decision to abort the foetus could be taken.
Question. Enumerate and describe any five reasons for introducing sex education to school-going children.
Answer : The reasons for introducing sex education to school-going children are as follows (i) At school level, children from age group 12 and above should be counselled for reproductive system, processes and practices and importance of safe and responsible sex.
(ii) Sex related issues and problems like adolescence changes, menstrual cycle, menstrual problems, unwanted pregnancy, unsafe abortion, reproductive tract infections (STDs)
and cancers.
(iii) They should know about body changes during their age and taught about healthy habits including personal cleanliness and hygiene.
(iv) Students should become part of such education, so that they overcome hesitation and gain confidence to discuss any query with their teacher or parents.
(v) Counselling and awareness regarding reproductive organs, safe and hygienic sexual practices will play an important role to make people reproductively healthy.
Question. Suggest some methods to assist infertile couples to have children.
Answer : There are numerous assisted reproductive technologies (ART) available that can bless infertile
couples with children.
They are:
IVF: In Vitro Fertilisation (Test-tube babies).
ET: Embryo Transfer
ZIFT: Zygote Intra Fallopian transfer.
GIFT: Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer.
ICSI: Intracytoplasmic sperm injection.
IUI: Intrauterine Insemination.
Question. List the objectives of Reproductive and Child Health Care Programmes (RCH
Answer : Objectives of RCH are as follows:
Creating awareness about various reproduction-related problems.
Providing facilities and support for building up a reproductively healthy society.
Providing audio-visual and print media support to various government and non-government organizations.
Educating the people and providing the right information to save them from myths and misconceptions.
Providing proper education regarding reproductive organs, adolescence and related changes, safe and hygienic sexual practices.
Providing information regarding the danger of sexually transmitted diseases, AIDS, etc.
Question. Why should sex education be introduced to school-going children? List any five reasons.
Answer : Sex education should be introduced to school going children for the following reasons:
To make the students aware that the bodily changes they are experiencing during puberty are absolutely normal and natural.
To help them speak up when they face any sexual harassment in society.
The students will get to know about the facts of life from a supportive source instead of some absurd show or movie.
They will be made aware of the risks involved in having sex.
Question. STDs are a threat to reproductive health. Describe any two such diseases and suggest preventive measures.
Answer : Diseases or infections which are transmitted through sexual intercourse are collectively called Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs) or Venereal Diseases (VD) or Reproductive
Tract Infections (RTI).
Though all persons are vulnerable to these infections, their incidences are reported to be very high among persons in the age group of 15-24 years. STDs can be considered as
self-invited diseases.
STDs include gonorrhoea, syphilis, genital herpes, chlamydiasis, genital warts, trichomoniasis, hepatitis-B, HIV. These diseases may cause some complications Pelvic Inflammatory Diseases (PID), abortions, still births, ectopic pregnancies, infertility, or even cancer of the reproductive tract.
Hepatitis-B and HIV are such diseases that get transmitted by the following ways besides sexual contacts
(i) Sharing of injection needles or surgical instruments with infected persons.
(ii) Transfusion of infected blood.
(iii) Transfer from infected mother to the foetus through placenta.
Preventive Measures
By following simple principles, STDs can be prevented
(i) Avoid sex with unknown partners/multiple partners.
(ii) Always use condoms during coitus.
(iii) Contact a qualified doctor for any doubt in early stage of infection.
More Question
1. Where is sporopollenin present in plants? State its significance with respect to its chemical Nature.
2. Normally one embryo develops in one seed but when an orange seed is squeezed many embryos of different shapes and sizes are seen. Mention how it has happened.
3. Name the part of the flower which the tassels of the corn-cob represent.
4. Name the type of flower which favours cross pollination.
5. Why is bagging of the emasculated flowers essential during hybridization experiments?
6. The meiocyteof rice has 24 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are present in its endosperm?
7. Why is a coconut plant referred to a monoecious?
8. A bilobed, dithecous anther has 100 microspore mother cells per microsporangium. How many male gametophytes this anther can produce?
9. Differentiate between albuminous and non-albuminous seeds, giving one example of each.
10. Why is geitonogamy also referred to as genetical autogamy?
11. The flower of brinjal is referred to as chasmogamous while that of beans is cleistogamous. How are they different from each other?
12. Banana is a parthernocarpic fruit whereas oranges show polyembryony. How are they different from each other with respect to seeds .
13. Draw a vertical section of a maize grain and label i) pericarp ii) scutellum c) coleoptile and iv) radicle.
14. Write the difference between the tender coconut water and the thick, white kernel of a mature coconut and their ploidy.
15 i) Write the characteristic features of anther, pollen and stigma of wind pollinated flowers. ii) How do flowers reward their insect pollinators? Explain.
16 Draw a longitudinal section of post pollinated pistil showing entry of pollen tube into a matureembro-sac. Label filiform apparatus, chalazal end, hilum, antipodals, male gametes and secondary nucleus.
17 Make a list of any three outbreeding devices that flowering plants have developed and explain how they help to encourage cross-pollination.
18 Why are angiosperm anthers called dithecous ? Describe the structure of its Microsporangium.
19 Draw a diagram of a male gametophyte of an angiosperm. Label any four parts. Briefly describe its structure.
20 How does the megaspore mother cell develops into 7-celled,8-nulceated embryosac in an angiosperm? Draw labeled diagram of a mature embryo sac.
21 a) Explain the different ways apomictic seeds can develop. Give an example of each. (b) Mention one advantage of apomictic seeds to farmers.
(c) Draw a labelled mature stage of a dicotyledonous embryo.
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Worksheet for CBSE Biology Class 12 Chapter 4 Reproductive Health
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