CUET Biology MCQs Unit I Reproduction

Refer to CUET Biology MCQs Unit I Reproduction provided below available for download in Pdf. The MCQ Questions for UG Biology with answers are aligned as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern suggested by CUET, NCERT and KVS. Multiple Choice Questions for Unit I Reproduction are an important part of exams for UG Biology and if practiced properly can help you to improve your understanding and get higher marks. Refer to more Chapter-wise MCQs for CUET UG Biology and also download more latest study material for all subjects

MCQ for UG Biology Unit I Reproduction

UG Biology students should refer to the following multiple-choice questions with answers for Unit I Reproduction in UG.

Unit I Reproduction MCQ Questions UG Biology with Answers

CUET Biology Reproduction in Organisms MCQs

Question: In which of the following pairs the plants can be vegetative propagated by leaf buds?

a) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe

b) Chrysanthemum and Agave

c) Agave and Kalanchoe

d) Asparagus and Bryophyllum

Answer : A

Question: The terms homothallic and monoecious are used to denote

a) bisexual condition

b) unisexual condition

c) staminate flowers

d) pistillate flowers

Answer : A

Question: Appearance of vegetative propagules from the nodes of plants such as sugarcane and ginger is mainly because

a) Nodes have meristematic cells

b) Nodes are located near the soil

c) Nodes have non-photosynthetic cells

d) Nodes are shorter than internodes

Answer : A

Question: There are various types of reproduction. The type of reproduction adopted by an organism depends on

a) The organism’s habitat, physiology and genetic makeup

b) Morphology and physiology of the organism

c) Morphology of the organism

d) The habitat and morphology of the organism

Answer : A

Question: Which of the following statements is true of Hydra?

a) It produces multicellular bud

b) It produces unicellular bud

c) It produces asexual gemmules

d) None of these

Answer : A

Question:  Meiosis is best observed in dividing 

a) cells of apical meristem

b) cells of lateral meristem

c) microspores and anther wall

d) microsporocytes

Answer : D

Question:  In which one pair both the plants can be vegetatively propagated by leaf pieces? 

a) Agave and Kalanchoe

b) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe

c) Asparagus and Bryophyllum

d) Chrysanthemum and Agave

Answer : B

Question: Which ot the following has the longest life span ?

a) Butterfly

b) Crocodile

c) Parrot   

d) Tortoise

Answer : D

Question: In yeast cell division results in a small cell called

a) bud   

b) clone

c) branch

d) offspring

Answer : A

Question: Planaria’s most remarkable characteristics are its ability to

a) Regenerate

b) Generate bioluminescence

c) Survive without air

d) Hibernation

Answer : A

Question: Bryophyllum daigremontianum reproduces by

a) Vegetative propagation

b) Budding

c) Fission

d) Fragmentation

Answer : A

Question: ____________is not a method of vegetative propagation

a) Lytic cycle

b) Layering

c) Cutting

d) Grafting

Answer : A

Question: The property of an undifferentiated cell that has the potential to develop into an entire plant is called

a) Totipotency

b) Subpotency

c) Cloning

d) Budding

Answer : A

Question: Appearance of vegetative propagules from the nodes of plants such as sugarcane and ginger is mainly because

a) nodes have meristematic cells

b) nodes have meristematic cells

c) nodes have meristematic cells

d) nodes are shorter than intemodes

Answer : A

Question: A multicellular, filamentous alga exhibits a type of sexual life cycle in which the meiotic division occurs after the formation of zygote. The adult filament of this alga has

a) haploid vegetative cells and haploid gametangia

b) diploid vegetative cells and haploid gametangia

c) diploid vegetative cells and diploid gametangia

d) haploid vegetative cells and diploid gametangia

Answer : A

Question: The statements given below describe certain features that are observed in the pistil of flowers.

i. Pistil may have many carpels

ii. Each carpel may have more than one ovule

iii. Each carpel has only one ovule

iv. Pistil have only one carpel

Choose the statements that are true from the options below:

a) i and ii

b) i and iii

c) ii and iv

d) iii and iv

Answer : A

Question: In sexual reproduction, offsprings resemble the parents

a) structurally but not functionally.

b) functionally but not structurally.

c) both structurally and functionally.

d) neither structurally nor functionally.

Answer : B

Question: Development of an egg without fertilization is called

a) gametogenesis

b) metagenesis

c) oogenesis       

d) parthenogenesis

Answer : D

Question: There is no natural death in single celled organisms like Amoeba and bacteria because:

a) Parental body is distributed among the offspring

b) They are microscopic

c) They reproduce by binary fission

d) They cannot reproduce sexually

Answer : A

Question: Which of the following statements is true of Hydra?

a) It produces multicellular bud

b) It produces unicellular bud

c) None of these

d) It produces asexual gemmules

Answer : A

Question:  A population of genetically identical individuals, obtained from asexual reproduction is 

a) callus

b) clone

c) deme

d) aggregate

Answer : B

Question: Vegetative propagation in mint occurs 

a) Rhizome

b) Sucker

c) Runner

d) Offset

Answer : B

Question: In all the methods of asexual reproduction

a) offsprings produced are genetically identical to the parents.

b) offsprings produced are genetically different from the parents.

c) offsprings produced may or may not be identical to the parents.

d) None of the above

Answer : A

Question: Fleshy buds produced in the axil of leaves, which grow to form new plants when shed and fall on ground are called

a) Bulbs 

b) Bulbils

c) Tubers

d) Offset

Answer : B

Question: Fusion of unrelated gametes is called

a) Fertilization

b) None of the above

c) Autogamy

d) Dichogamy

Answer : A

Question: Budding, in hydra, is a form ________

a) Asexual reproduction

b) None of the above

c) Sexual reproduction

d) Apoptosis

Answer : A

Question: ________ shows totipotency.

a) Meristem

b) Xylem

c) Cork

d) All of the above

Answer : A

Question: Identify the correct sequence of events

a) Gametogenesis → Syngamy → Zygote

b) Gametogenesis → Embryogenesis → Zygote → Syngamy

c) Gametogenesis → Zygote → Syngamy → Embryogenesis

d) Gametogenesis → Syngamy Embryogenesis → Zygote

Answer : A

Question: The end of vegetative phase in plants which marks the beginning of the reproductive phase can be easily seen in the higher plants when they come to

a) flower   

b) fertilize

c) pollinate

d) None of the above

Answer : A

Question: Which of the following statements, support the view that elaborate sexual reproductive process appeared much later in the organic evolution.

i. Lower groups of organisms have simpler body design

ii. Asexual reproduction is common in lower groups

iii. Asexual reproduction is common in higher groups of organisms

iv. The high incidence of sexual reproduction in angiosperms and vertebrates

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

a) ii and iv

b) ii and iii

c) i and iii

d) i and iii

Answer : A

Question: Which of the following statements is true of Bryophyllum?

a) Geminating bud appears from the notch at the leaf margin

b) Germinating bud appears from the node of the rhizome

c) Germinating bud appears from the node of the rhizome

d) None of these

Answer : A

Question:  Why is vivipary an undesirable character for annual crop plants?

a) It reduces the vigour of the plant

b) It adversely affects the fertility of the plant

c) The seeds exhibit long dormancy

d) The seeds cannot be stored under normal conditions for the next season

Answer : D

Question: A clone is a group of individuals obtained through

a) self-pollination         

b) hybridization

c) asexual reproduction

d) cross-pollination

Answer : C

Question: The terms homothallic and monoecious are used to denote

a) bisexual condition

b) staminate flowers

c) pistillate flowers

d) unisexual condition

Answer : A

Question: When living tissue from a plant is extracted and placed in a medium, it is called ______

a) Explant

b) Transplantation

c) Horticulture

d) None of the above

Answer : A

Question: Offspring formed by sexual reproduction exhibit more variation than those formed by Asexual reproduction because

a) gametes of parents have qualitatively different genetic composition

b) gametes of parents have qualitatively different genetic composition

c) greater amount of DNA is involved in sexual reproduction

d) sexual reproduction is a lengthy process

Answer : A

Question: The term ‘clone’ cannot be applied to offspring formed by sexual reproduction because

a) Offspring do not possess exact copies of parental DNA

b) DNA of only one parent is copied and passed on to the offspring

c) Offspring are formed at different times

d) NA of parent and offspring are completely different

Answer : A

Question: Given below are a few statements related to external fertilization. Choose the correct statements.

i. The male and female gametes are formed and released simultaneously

ii. Only a few gametes are released into the medium

iii. Water is the medium in a majority of organisms exhibiting external fertilization

iv. Offspring formed as a result of external fertilization have better chance of survival than those formed inside an organism

a) i and iii

b) ii and iv

c) i and iv

d) iii and iv

Answer : A

Question: In flowering plants both male and female gametes are non-motile. The method to bring them together for fertilization is

a) water

b) air

c) pollination

d) apomixis

Answer : C

Question: Offspring formed by sexual reproduction exhibit more variation than those formed by Asexual reproduction because

a) Gametes of parents have qualitatively different genetic composition

b) Genetic material comes from parents of two different species

c) Greater amount of DNA is involved in sexual reproduction

d) Sexual reproduction is a lengthy process

Answer : A

Question: Which of the following statements is true of yeast?

a) The cell divides unequally. The smaller cell develops into a bud

b) The cell divides by binary fission. One of them develops into a bud

c) The cell produces conidia, which develop into a bud

d) None of these 

Answer : A

Question:  Which of the following plant cells will show totipotency? 

a) Sieve tubes

b) Xylem vessels

c) Meristems

d) Cork cells

Answer : C

Question:  In ginger vegetative propagation occurs through: 

a) Offsets

b) Bulbils

c) Runners

d) Rhizome 

Answer : D

Question: In protists and monerans, asexual reproduction occurs by 

a) budding

b) binary fission

c) conidia 

d) multiple fission

Answer : B

Question: Vegetative propagation in Pistia occurs by

a) offset

b) sucker

c) runner

d) rhizome

Answer : A

Question: There is no natural death in single celled organisms like Amoeba and bacteria because

a) parental body is distributed among the offspring

b) they are microscopic

c) they reproduce by binary fission

d) they cannot reproduce sexually

Answer : A

Question: The male gametes of rice plant have 12 chromosomes in their nucleus. The chromosome number in the female gamete, zygote and the cells of the seedling will be, respectively,

a) 12, 24, 24

b) 24, 12, 24

c) 24, 12, 12

d) 12, 24, 12

Answer : A
 

CUET Biology Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants MCQs

Question : Ovules are attached to a parenchymatous cushion called

a) nucellus  

b) obturator

c) conducting tissue

d) placenta

Answer : D

Question :   Polygonum type of embryo sac/typical female gametophyte of angiosperms is

a) 7-celled, 7-nucleate

b) 7-celled, 8-nucleate

c) 8-celled, 7-nucleate

d) 8-celled, 8-nucleate

Answer : B

Question : Pollination by water occurs in

a) Vallisneria

b) Zostera

c) Satvia      

d) All of these

Answer : A

Question :  Embryo sac is called monosporic when it develops from

a) One of the megaspores out of the four megaspores which are derived from division of megaspore mother cell

b) Three megaspores

c) Only from two functional megaspores

d) None of these

Answer : A

Question :  Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by

a) Wind

b) Bat

c) Bee

d) Water

Answer : A

Question : megaspore mother cell

a) megasporangium

b) megasporophyll

c) megaspore

d) None of these

Answer : A

Question :   Generative cell was destroyed by laser but a normal pollen tube was still formed because

a) vegetative cell is not damaged

b) contents of killed generative cell stimulate pollen growth

c) laser beam stimulates growth of pollen tube 

d) the region of emergence of pollen tube is not harmed

Answer : A

Question :  Sperm and egg nuclei fuse due to 

a) base pairing of their DNA and RNA

b) formation of hydrogen bonds 

c) mutual attraction due to differences in electrical charges

d) attraction of their protoplasts

Answer : D

Question :   Which of the following pair has haploid structures? 

a) Nucellus and antipodal cells

b) Antipodal cells and egg cell

c) Antipodal cells and megaspore mother cell

d) Nucellus and primary endosperm nucleus

Answer : B

Question :  Double fertilization and triple fusion were discovered by 

a) Hofmeister

b) Nawaschin and Guignard

c) Leeuwenhoek

d) Strasburger

Answer : B

Question :  One of the most resistant biological material is 

a) lignin

b) hemicellulose

c) lignocellulose

d) sporopollenin

Answer : D

Question :  The endosperm of gymnosperms is 

a) triploid

b) haploid

c) diploid

d) polyploid

Answer : B

Question :  Anemophily type of pollination is found in

a) Salvia

b) bottle brush 

c) Vallisneria

d) coconut

Answer : D

Question :  An ovule which becomes curved so that the nucellus and embryo sac lie at right angles to the funicle is 

a) hemitropous

b) campylotropous

c) anatropous

d) orthotropous

Answer : A

Question :  In a type of apomixis known as adventive embryony, embryos develop directly from the

a) nucellus or integuments 

b) zygote

c) synergids or antipodals in an embryo sac

d) accessory embryo sac in the ovule

Answer : A

Question :  What would be the number of chromosomes in the cells of the aleuronelayer in a plant species with 8 chromosomes in its synergids?

a) 24

b) 32

c) 8

d) 16

Answer : A

Question : Microsporogenesis occurs

a) on margins of leaves.

b) inside the ovule.

c) inside the anther.

d) in essential floral organs.

Answer : C

Question : Ovule is

a) megasporangium

b) megasporophyll

c) integumented megasporangium

d) rolled megasporophyll

Answer : A

Question :  In a typical complete, bisexual and hypogynous flower the arrangement of floral whorls on the thalamus from the outermost to the innermost is:

a) Calyx, corolla, androecium and gynoecium

b) Calyx, corolla, gynoecium and androecium

c) Gynoecium, androecium, corolla and calyx

d) Androecium, gynoecium, corolla and calyx

Answer : A

Question :  When the pollen of a flower is transferred to the stigma of another flower on the same plant, the process is known as

a) geitonogamy

b) autogamy

c) Both

d) None of these

Answer : A

Question :  Autogamy can occur in a chasmogamous flower if

a) both pollen and ovules mature simultaneously

b) both anther and stigma are of equal lengths

c) ovules mature before maturity of pollen

d) None of these

Answer : A

Question :  Choose the correct statement from the following

a) Cleistogamous flowers always exhibit autogamy

b) Chasmogamous flowers always exhibit geitonogamy

c) Cleistogamous flowers exhibit both autogamy and geitonogamy

d) Chasmogamous flowers never exhibit autogamy

Answer : A

Question :  What would be the number of chromosomes of the aleurone cells of a plant with 42 chromosomes in its roots tip cells?

a) 63

b) 84

c) 81

d) 75

Answer : A

Question : The point at which funiculus touches the ovule is

a) chalaza

b) hilum

c) raphe  

d) endothelium

Answer : B

Question : Both chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers are present in

a) Helianthus

b) Lommelina

c) Rosa          

d) Gossypium

Answer : B

Question :  Number of prothallial cells present in male gametophyte of flowering plant is

a) Zero

b) One

c) Two

d) Four

Answer : A

Question :  A dioecious flowering plant prevents both

a) Autogamy and geitonogamy

b) Autogamy and xenogamy

c) Geitonogamy and xenogamy

d) Cleistogamy and xenogamy

Answer : A

Question :  Male gametophyte of angiosperms/monocots is 

a) microsporangium

b) nucellus

c) microspore

d) stamen

Answer : C

Question :  Embryo sac occurs in

a) embryo

b) axis part of embryo

c) ovule

d) endosperm

Answer : C

Question :  Transfer of pollen to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is

a) autogamy

b) allogamy

c) xenogamy

d) geitonogamy

Answer : D

Question :  How many pollen grains will be formed after meiotic division in 10 microspore mother cells? 

a) 10

b) 20

c) 40

d) 80

Answer : C

Question :  Double fertilization leading to initiation of  endosperm in angiosperms require 

a) fusion of one polar nucleus and the second male gamete only

b) fusion of two polar nuclei and the second male gamete

c) fusion of four or more polar nuclei and the second male gamete only

d) all of the above kinds of fusion in different angiosperms

Answer : B

Question :  Top-shaped multiciliate male gametes and the mature seed which bears only one embryo with two cotyledons, are characteristic features of 

a) cycads

b) conifers

c) polypetalous angiosperms

d) gamopetalous angiosperms

Answer : A

Question : Anther is typically

a) tetrasporangiate

b) bisporangiate

c) trisporangiate    

d) monosporangiate

Answer : A

Question :  The number of meiotic divisions, required to produce 400 seeds in a pea plant, is

a) 500

b) 400

c) 300

d) 200

Answer : A
 

CUET Biology Human Reproduction MCQs

Question: The __________ lead to vas deferens that ascends to the ______ and loops over the __________.

a) prostate, stomach, urinary bladder.

b) epididymis, abdomen, urinary bladder.

c) vas efferentia, abdomen, ureter.

d) urinary bladder, ejaculatory duct, abdomen.

Answer : B

Question: A sac shaped like an upside down pear with a thick lining and muscles in the pelvic area where a fertilized egg or zygote comes to grow into a baby is called _______.

a) oviduct

b) uterus

c) vagina

d) vulva

Answer : B

Question: The vas deferens receives duct from the seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as:

a) Ejaculatory duct

b) Efferent ductule

c) Ureter

d) Epididymis

Answer : A

Question: Correct sequence of hormone secretion from beginning of menstruation is

a) FSH, estrogen progesterone

b) Estrogen, progesterone, FSH

c) FSH, progesterone, estrogen

d) All of these

Answer : A

Question: Occurrence of Leydig’s cells and their secretion is 

a) ovary and estrogen

b) liver and cholesterol

c) pancreas and glucagon

d) testis and testosterone

Answer : D

Question: Acrosome reaction in sperm is triggered by 

a) capacitation

b) release of lysin

c) influx of Na+

d) release of fertilizin

Answer : D

Question: After ovulation, Graafian follicle regresses into 

a) corpus luteum

b) corpus callosum

c) corpus albicans

d) corpus atresia

Answer : A

Question: Ovulation in the human female normally takes place during the menstrual cycle

a) at the mid secretory phase 

b) just before the end of the secretory phase

c) at the beginning of the proliferative phase

d) at the end of the proliferative phase

Answer : D

Question: The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to the formation of sperms in a mature human testis is: 

a) spermatid – spermatocyte –spermatogonia – sperms

b) spermatogonia-spermatid-spermatocytesperms

c) spermatocyte-spermatogonia-spermatid – sperms

d) spermatogonia – spermatocyte – spermatid – sperms

Answer : D

Question: The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum occurs 

a) Shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes entry into the Fallopian tube

b) Until after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm

c) Until the nucleus of the sperm has fused wilh that of the ovum

d) in the Graafian follicle following the first maturation division

Answer : B

Question: After birth, colostrum is released from mammary glands which is rich in

a) fat and low in proteins

b) proteins and low in fat

c) proteins, antibodies and low in fat

d) proteins, fat and low in antibodies

Answer : C

Question: By which process sperms released from the seminiferous tubules?

a) Spermiation    

b) Insemination

c) Spermatogenesis

d) Spermiogenesis

Answer : A

Question: The immature male germ cell undergo division to produce sperms by the process of spermatogenesis. Choose the correct one with reference to above.

a) Secondary spermatocytes have 23 chromosomes and undergo second meiotic division

b) Spermatozoa are transformed into spermatids

c) Primary spermatocytes divide by mitotic cell division

d) Spermatogonia have 46 chromosomes and always undergo meiotic cell division

Answer : A

Question: Conversion of spermatids into sperms is

a) Spermiogenesis

b) Ppermatogenesis

c) Gametogenesis

d) Metamorphosis

Answer : A

Question: Which of the following hormones is not secreted by human placenta?

a) LH

b) Progesterone

c) Estrogens

d) hCG

Answer : A

Question: Spermiation is the process of the release of sperms from

a) Seminiferous tubules

b) Vas deferens

c) Epididymis

d) Prostate gland

Answer : A

Question: Proliferative phase of menstrual cycle, is also called

a) luteal phase

b) luteal phase

c) luteal phase

d) All of these

Answer : A

Question: Meroblastic cleavage is division 

a) horizontal

b) partial/parietal

c) total

d) spiral

Answer : B

Question: Extra-embryonic membranes of the mammalian embryo are derived from 

a) inner cell mass

b) trophoblast

c) formative cells

d) follicle cells

Answer : C

Question: Test-tube baby means a baby born when

a) the ovum is fertilized externally and there after implanted in the uterus

b) it develops from a non-fertilized egg

c) it is developed in a test tube

d) it is developed through tissue culture method

Answer : A

Question: Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by: 

a) fully developed foetus and placenta

b) differentiation of mammary glands

c) pressure exerted by amniotic fluid

d) release of oxytocin from pituitary

Answer : A

Question: In human female the blastocyst 

a) gets implanted into uterus 3 days after ovulation

b) gets nutrition from uterine endometrial secretion only after implantation

c) gets implanted in endometrium by the trophoblast cells.

d) forms placenta even before implantation

Answer : C

Question: The enlarged end of penis is covered by a loose fold of skin is called.

a) glans penis

b) foreskin

c) hymen       

d) urethral meatus

Answer : B

Question: Spermatids are transformed into sperm by a process called_______.

a) spermiation 

b) implantation

c) insemination

d) spermiogenesis

Answer : D

Question: Corpus luteum produces

a) Progesterone

b) Testosterone

c) Estrogen

d) All of these

Answer : A

Question: _______ is a lytic enzyme released by the sperm.

a) Hyaluronidase

b) Helicase

c) Trypsin

d) None of the these

Answer : A

Question:  Egg is liberated from ovary in 

a) secondary oocyte stage

b) primary oocyte stage

c) oogonial stage

d) mature ovum stage

Answer : A

Question: Male hormone is produced in the testis by cells of 

a) sertoli

b) epithelial

c) spermatocytes

d) Leydig

Answer : D

Question: Stratum germinativum is an example of which kind of epithelium ? 

a) Cuboidal

b) Ciliated

c) Columnar

d) Squamous

Answer : A

Question: Bartholin’s glands are situated 

a) on either side of vagina in humans

b) on either side of vas deference in humans

c) on the sides of the head of some amphibians

d) at the reduced tail end of birds

Answer : A

Question: Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an endocrine gland after ovulation ? 

a) Graafian follicle

b) Stroma

c) Germinal epithelium

d) Vitelline membrane

Answer : A

Question: Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from

a) Testicular lobules to rete testis 

b) Rete testis to vas deferens

c) Vas deferens to epididymis

d) Epididymis to urethra

Answer : B

Question: Increased secretion of which hormone start the process of sperm formation at the time of puberty?

a) GH 

b) TSH

c) PRL

d) GnRH

Answer : D

Question: Which of the following contains a fluid filled cavity called antrum?

a) Primary spermatocyte.

b) Primary follicle of ovary.

c) Tertiary follicle of ovary.

d) Secondary spermatocyte.

Answer : C

Question: Connective tissue around seminiferous tubules possess endocrine cells called

a) Leydig cells

b) Sertoli cells

c) Primary germ cells

d) None of these

Answer : A

Question: Corpus luteum

a) Later forms corpus albicans

b) None of these

c) Decreases in size during pregnancy

d) Degenerates during pregnancy

Answer : A
 

CUET Biology Reproductive Health MCQs

Question: According to which of the following organization "reproductive health means a total well-being in all aspects of reproduction"?

a) WHL

b) UNESCO

c) WHO

d) WWW

Answer : C

Question: ‘Saheli’ a new oral contraceptive developed by

a) All Indian Institute of Medical Science

b) Central Drug Research Institute

c) Health Care Pvt. Ltd.

d) Bharat Immunologicals & Biologicals corp. Ltd.

Answer : B

Question: The diaphragm, cervical cap and vaults are

a) disposable contraceptive devices

b) Reusable contraceptives

c) Non-medicated IUDs

d) Cu-releasing IUDs

Answer : B

Question: Fixing up of blastocyst in the wall of uterus is

a) Implantation

b) Fertilisation

c) Placentation

d) Impregnation

Answer : A

Question: Infertility cases due to inability of the male partner to inseminate the female or due to very low sperm count in the ejaculates, could be corrected by artificial insemination (AI). 

a) Female Reproductive tract

b) Epididymis

c) Rete testis

d) None of these

Answer : A

Question: In India, human population is heavily weighed towards the younger age groups as a result of  

a) short life span of many individuals and low birth rate 

b) long life span of many individuals and low birth rate 

c) short life span of many individuals and high birth rate 

d) long life span of many individuals and high birth rate

Answer : C

Question: What is the most important factor for the success of animal population ?  

a) Natality

b) Unlimited food 

c) Adaptability

d) Inter-species activity

Answer : C

Question:  The function of copper-T is to prevent  

a) fertilization

b) egg maturation 

c) ovulation 

d) implantation of blastocyst

Answer : D

Question: Random genetic drift in a population probably results from  

a) constant low mutation rate

b) large population size 

c) highly genetically variable individuals 

d) interbreeding within this population

Answer : C

Question: The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in numbers during rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show? 

a) S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect 

b) The food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season 

c) Its population growth curve is of J-type 

d) The population of its predators increases enormously

Answer : C

Question: A childless couple can be assisted to have a child through a technique called GIFT. The full form of this technique is :

a) Germ cell internal fallopian transfer

b) Gamete inseminated fallopian transfer

c) Gamete intra fallopian transfer

d) Gamete internal fertilization and transfer

Answer : C

Question: Progestasert and LNG-20 are

a) implants

b) copper releasing IUDs

c) non-medicated IUDs

d) hormone releasing IUDs

Answer : D

Question: STD/VD/UTI are

a) devices which are used to delay the pregnancy.

b) infections which are caused by food contamination.

c) diseases which are transmitted through sexual intercourse.

d) action plans and programmes to create awareness about various reproductive related health and problems.

Answer : C

Question: Which one is correct for mammalian testis

a) Sertoli cells, seminiferous tubules, Leydig's cells

b) Graafian follicles, Leydig's cells and seminiferous tubules

c) Graafian follicles, Sertoli cells and seminiferous tubules

d) All of these

Answer : A

Question: Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ?

a) Jaundice

b) Down syndrome

c) Sex of the foetus

d) Klinefelter syndrome

Answer : A

Question: Which one amongst the following is the first country in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at a national level to attain total reproductive health as social goal?

a) China

b) India

c) Japan

d) USA

Answer : B

Question: Which of the following contraceptive also provides protection from contacting STDs and AIDS ?

a) Diaphragms

b) Spermicidal foams

c) Condoms

d) Lactational amenorrhoea

Answer : C

Question: Which of the following is not a copper releasing IUD?

a) LNG 20

b) Lippes Loop

c) Both

d) None of these

Answer : A

Question: Heart is

a) Mesodermal

b) Endodermal

c) Ectodermal

d) None of these

Answer : A

Question:  Two opposite forces operate in the growth and development of every population. One  of them is related to the ability to reproduce at a given rate. The force opposing to it is called  

a) biotic control

b) mortality 

c) fecundity   

d) environmental resistance

Answer : D

Question: In a population, unrestricted reproductive capacity is called 

a) biotic potential 

b) fertility 

c) carrying capacity 

d) birth rate

Answer : A

Question: Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?  

a) Hashish causes alter thought perceptions and hallucinations 

b) Opium stimulates nervous system and causes hallucinations 

c) Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed emotions 

d) Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary Euphoria 

Answer : A

Question: Which of the following ions plays an effective role in the activity of IUDs?

a) Iron     

b) Zinc

c) Copper

d) Ammonium

Answer : C

Question: MTPs are considered relatively safe during the ______ weeks of pregnancy.

a) 12

b) 15

c) 18

d) 20

Answer : A

Question: Seminal vesicles are located in

a) Above Coeper's glands

b) Glane penis

c) Uterus

d) Caput epididymis

Answer : A

Question: Artificial insemination means

a) Artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina

b) Introduction of sperms of healthy donor directly into the ovary

c) Transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing ova

d) None of these

Answer : A

Question: RCH stands for

a) Routine Check-up of Health

b) Reproduction Cum Hygiene

c) Reversible Contraceptive Hazards

d) Reproductive and Child Health Care

Answer : D

Question: Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the

a) Suppression of gonadotropins

b) Hyper secretion of gonadotropins

c) Suppression of gametic transport

d) Suppression of fertilisation

Answer : A

Question: What is the correct surgical method for preventing pregnancy in which the vas deferens is cut?

a) Vasectomy

b) Castration

c) Hysterectomy

d) Ovariectomy

Answer : A

Question: The highly sophisticated procedure of directly injecting a sperm into an egg is called

a) ICSI

b) ZIFT

c) GIFT

d) AID

Answer : A

Question:  Test-tube baby is one who  

a) is born out of artificial insemination 

b) has undergone development in a test tube 

c) is born out of the technique of fertilization in vitro 

d) has been developed without fertilization

Answer : C

Question:  Progesterone, which is the most important component of oral contraceptive pills, prevents pregnancy by  

a) preventing the formation of egg 

b) preventing the cleavage of the fertilized egg 

c) creating unfavourable chemical environment for the sperms to survive in the female reproductive tract 

d) blocking ovulation

Answer : D

Question: The formula for exponential population growth is 

a) dt/dN = rN

b) dN/rN = dt 

c) rN/dN = dt

d) dN/dt = rN

Answer : D 

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