NEET Online Mock Test For Full Syllabus Set C

Refer to NEET Online Mock Test For Full Syllabus Set C below. Students of NEET All Subjects can do the below online test and refer to the full list of free NEET All Subjects Mock Online Test provided below. These online Mock tests for All Subjects in NEET have been designed based on the pattern of questions expected to come in the upcoming NEET examinations and the latest syllabus issued by NEET, NCERT and KVS. We have also provided MCQ Questions for NEET All Subjects with answers for all topics.

Online Mock Test for NEET All Subjects All Chapters

In the Mock test for All Subjects All Chapters you can see the list of questions below with options out of which you have to select one correct answer and after completing the test you can check your answers and score. This mock test will help NEET students to check understanding of all topics in All Chapters.

All Chapters All Subjects NEET Mock Test

1. A satellite moving around the earth in a circular orbit of radius r with speed v, if suddenly loses some of its energy. Then

Both r and v will increase r will increase and v will decrease r will decrease and v will increase Both r and v will decrease

2. A person sitting firmly over a rotating chair has his arms stretched. If he fold his arms, his kinetic energy about the axis of rotation

Remain same Decreases Increases May increase or decrease

3. A rope is wound around a solid cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 20 cm as shown in the figure. A mass of 4 kg is suspended from the other end and released. The linear acceleration of 4 kg mass is

4. Which of the following is a path function?

Heat Internal energy Entropy Enthalpy

7. A man of mass 50 kg is at one end of 6 m long boat of mass 100 kg rests in still water. The man moves to the centre of boat and sits there. The centre of mass of the system will shift by

5/3 m 0 m 1.5 m 1 m

8. A body of mass 500 g is thrown upwards with a velocity 20 m/s and reaches back to surface of planet in 20 s. Then weight of body on planet is

2 N 5 N 1 N 4 N

9. A uniform thin rod of mass M and length l is bent to form a semicircle of radius R. The gravitational potential at the centre of circle is

Zero

10. A body is projected vertically upward from the surface of a planet of radius R, with a speed equal to half the escape speed for that planet. The maximum height from surface of earth attained by body is

11. If the kinetic energy of a satellite moving around a planet is doubled. Then it will

Move in a circular orbit of greater radius Move in a circular orbit of greater radius Move in a circular orbit of smaller radius Escape from the gravitational pull of planet

12. The correct variation in the value of acceleration due to gravity(g) with depth (d) as one moves towards the centre from surface of earth is

13. The force between a hollow sphere of mass M and point mass m inside the shell is

Zero only at centre Attractive and depends on the position of point mass with respect to centre Zero everywhere inside the shell Attractive and constant

14. The escape velocity from a spherical planet is about v₀ km/s. The escape velocity from a planet having twice the radius and half the mean density

15. Consider a gravity free hall in which a tray of mass M, carrying a cubical block of ice of mass m and edge L, is at rest in the middle. If ice melts by what distance does the centre of mass of the tray and ice system descend?

Zero

16. A circular plate of diameter d is kept in contact with a square plate of edge d as shown in figure. The thickness and density of material are same everywhere. The centre of mass of composite system will be

Towards left of origin Towards right of origin Outside the two plates At origin

17.

18.

Zero

19.

20. Two small kids weighing 8 kg and 12 kg, are trying to balance a seesaw of total length 3 m with the fulcrum at centre. If one of the kid is sitting at one end, the distance of other kid from fulcrum is

1.0 m 1.4 m 1.5 m 4/3 m

21. A wheel starts from rest and rotates with a constant angular acceleration of 2.0 rad/s². The number of revolutions made by wheel in 10 s is nearly

20 16 12 10

22. A uniform spherical shell gradually expands maintaining shape. Then gravitational potential at centre will (mass remains constant)

Decreases Remains constant Oscillates Increases

23.

24.

m will have oscillatory motion m will remain at rest m will move towards 3M m will move towards 2M

25. If the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth is g, the speed with which a body hit the earth surface, when released from a height equal to radius of earth is

None of the options

26. Consider a planet in solar system which has mass equal to that of the earth and average density twice that of the earth. If an object weighs w on earth, then its weight on planet is

(2)^2/3 w 2^1/3 w 2 w w

27. Two particles of equal mass M go round a circle of radius R under the action of their mutual gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle is

28. The amount of work done in bringing three particles each of mass 0.1 kg slowly from infinity, to the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side 0.2 m is

1.0 × 10^–11 J –2.0 × 10^–11 J –1.0 × 10^–11 J 2.0 × 10^–11 J

29. Kinetic energy of a satellite in an orbit depends on

Mass of satellite only All mass of satellite, mass of central body and radius of orbit Mass of central planet only Radius of orbit only

30. Kepler’s second law (i.e. law of area) is based on

Law of conservation of momentum Law of conservation of energy Law of conservation of angular momentum Law of conservation of area

31. Two small masses M₁ and M₂ are placed at distance d apart. The minimum speed with which a particle of mass m projected from a point midway between the two masses, so as to escape to infinity, is

32.

33. Four similar particles of mass m are orbiting in a circle of radius r in the same angular direction because of their gravitational attractive force. The velocity of each particle is

34. A particle of mass 2 kg is projected at an angle of 60° above the horizontal, with a speed 20 m/s. The magnitude of angular momentum of the particle about point of projection, when it is at maximum height will be

150 kg m²/s 300 kg m²/s

35. Two rings each of mass M and radius R, are placed with common centre such that their planes are mutually perpendicular. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis through the centre and perpendicular to plane of one of the ring is

36. A torque of 10 N m is applied on a wheel having angular momentum 5 kg m²/s. If torque is supporting the motion of wheel, then angular momentum of the wheel after 3 second is

35 kg m²/s 40 kg m²/s 25 kg m²/s 30 kg m²/s

37. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg is rolling on a horizontal surface with a velocity 5 m/s collides with a horizontal spring of force constant 300 N/m. The maximum compression produced in the spring is

0.4 m 0.2 m 0.5 m 0.3 m

38. inclined plane of height 7 m. The rotational kinetic energy of sphere at bottom of plane is (g = 10 m/s²)

40 J 100 J 50 J 140 J

39. The moment of inertia of a uniform triangular lamina of uniform mass density will be (all three axis lie in the plane of lamina)

Equal about all the three axis Maximum about axis-2 Maximum about axis-1 Maximum about axis-3

40. A man of mass 50 kg is in a gravity free space at a height of 20 m above the floor. He throws a stone of 0.5 kg downwards with a speed of 36 km/h at an angle of 60° with vertical. When the stone reaches the floor, the distance of man from the floor is

20.2 m 20.1 m 20.0 m 19.9 m

41. Three identical uniform spheres, each of mass M and radius R, are placed as shown in figure. The moment of inertia of the system about the axis AB is

42.

mvR

43.

44. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its axis of symmetry in free space. The radius of sphere starts decreasing keeping its mass same. Which of the following option is correct?

Rotational kinetic energy will increase Angular speed will increase Both None of the options

45. A hollow sphere of radius 0.5 m and mas 10 kg, rolls on a horizontal surface. Its centre of mass has speed 60 cm/s. Magnitude of work required to stop it is

5 J 1.8 J 1.2 J 3 J

46. At 27°C, N₂O₄(g) dissociates 40% into NO₂(g) the equilibrium vapour density of the mixture is

40.26 46 32.85 72.41

47. At 25°C, the pH of an aqueous solution of a weak acid and a weak base is given by

48. Latent heat of fusion of a compound is 3000 J/mol at 27°C. Entropy change will be

10 JK^–1 mol^–1 1.5 JK^–1 mol^–1 12 JK^–1 mol^–1 0.1 JK^–1 mol^–1

49. If the value of an equilibrium constant for a reaction is 2 × 10⁷, then at equilibrium the system will contain

Equal concentrations of reactants and products Mostly products Only reactants Mostly reactants

50. Which of the following is a correct statement related to a closed system?

Exchange of both energy and matter are possible Exchange of only matter is possible Exchange of only energy is possible Exchange of neither energy nor matter is possible

51. Bomb calorimeter is used to calculate

52.

100 10 0.01 0.1

53. Degree of dissociation of 0.1 M CH₃COOH is (K_a = 1 × 10^–5)

0.025 0.01 0.02 0.05

54. pH of a solution obtained by mixing equal volumes of 0.3 M HCl and 0.1 M NaOH is

2.5 1.5 2 1

55. The pH of 1 L solution containing equal moles of acetic acid and sodium acetate is (pK_a of acetic acid = 4.74)

4.74 6.91 5.82 9.47

56. Which of the following is most soluble in H₂O?

57.

a/2 kJ –4a kJ 2a kJ –a/2 kJ

58. Unit of molar entropy is

J K^–1 J K mol^–1 J mol^–1 J K^–1 mol^–1

59.

60. At temperature higher than 25°C, which of the following options is correct regarding pure water?

61. Which pair will show common ion effect?

HCN + NaCN HCl + NaCl NaOH + NaCl H₂SO₄ + Na₂SO₄

62. If the solubility of a salt A2B3 in its saturated solution is s mol L^–1, then its solubility product will be

27 s³ 27 s⁴ 54 s⁵ 108 s⁵

63. The thermodynamic process for which volume remains constant is

Adiabatic process Isobaric process Isochoric process Isothermal process

64. The change in internal energy if 50 J of heat is given to the system at constant pressure and 20 J of work is done by the system will be

– 70 J 70 J – 30 J 30 J

65.

z – 2x – y kJ/mol x – y – 2z kJ/mol x – y – z kJ/mol z + x – y kJ/mol

66.

– a kJ/mol – c kJ/mol – b kJ/mol – d kJ/mol

67. Necessary condition for spontaneity is

68.

Monoatomic Tetraatomic Triatomic Diatomic

69. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 21 g of aluminium from 250 K to 350 K is (Specific heat of aluminium is 0.9 J (°C)^–1 g^–1)

2010 J 1590 J 2400 J 1890 J

70. Work done in a reversible isothermal expansion is given by

Both

None of the options

71. Total heat capacity for adiabatic process is

1 Zero R Infinite

72. If the heat of combustion of methane is –x kJ/mol, then the heat released during the combustion of 40 g of methane will be

x kJ 2.5x kJ 2x kJ 5x kJ

73. Which will undergo cationic hydrolysis?

NaCl CH₃COOK NH₄Cl NaCN

74. The salt which will have the highest pH in aqueous solution is

NH₄Cl NaCl Na₂SO₄ CH₃COONa

75.

By increasing the concentration of PCl₃(g) By increasing the pressure By decreasing the temperature By increasing the concentration of PCl₅(g)

76.

1 × 10^–10 2 × 10^–5 5 × 10^–9 1 × 10^–4

77. Which of the following mixtures is not a buffer?

H₂CO₃ and Na2CO₃ CH3COOH and CH3COONa NH₄OH and NH₄Cl NaCl and HCl

78. The conjugate acid of HSO4 ^– is

SO₃ H₂SO₃ H₂SO₄

79. The pH of a solution is increased from 2 to 4, its H⁺ concentration will

Halved Doubled Decreased by 100 times Increased by 100 times

80. Which of the following is not a Lewis acid?

AlCl₃ BF₃ NH₃ B₂H₆

81. pH of 10^–8 M HCl solution is

6.9 7 8 6.5

82. Which of the following is an extensive property?

Density Volume Pressure Temperature

83. In which of the following processes, entropy increases?

Freezing of water Condensation of water vapour Stretching of rubber Boiling of egg

84. If enthalpy of neutralisation of four acids A, B, C and D are – 50, – 20, – 53 and – 42 kJ eq^–1, respectively when they are neutralised by a common base then the strongest acid among the following is

C D A B

85. If 10 moles of an ideal expands in vacuum, then the work done will be

10 J Zero 12 J 8 J

86.

z – 2x + 3y – z + 2x – 2y z – 2x – 3y 2z + x – 2y

87.

88.

89.

200 K 233.3 K 333.3 K 400 K

90. The density of a planet is two times that of the earth, and acceleration due to gravity at the surface of planet is half that at the surface of earth. If radius of earth is R, then the radius of planet would be

91. Phloem sap mainly consists of all, except

Sucrose Inorganic nitrogen Water Hormones

92. Choose the odd one for chief sink for mineral elements.

Young leaves Developing fruits Senescent leaves Meristematic cells

93. Complete the below given statement by choosing correct option for A and B. “ A microfibrils are oriented B and make it easier for the stoma to open.

94. Absorption of water by roots is maximum in

Soil with high salt concentration Water logged soil Well watered and well aerated soil Soil with 0°C

95. A. Root pressure is related to re-establishment of continuous chains of water molecules in xylem under enormous tension created by transpiration.
B. Root pressure is responsible for guttation

Only B is true Both A and B are true Only A is true Both A and B are false

96. Symplastic pathway of water movement involves all, except

Cell wall Cytoplasm Vacuole Plasmodesmata

97. Absorption of water by hydrophilic substance without forming a solution is called

Osmosis Imbibition Deplasmolysis Plasmolysis

98.

(a) and (b) (a) and (c) (b) and (c) All (a), (b) and (c)

99. Withdrawal of protoplast of a plant cell from its wall due to excessive loss of water from cell due to osmotic action, is

Active transport Plasmolysis Deplasmolysis Endosmosis

100. Solute potential of a solution is

Zero Positive Always negative

101. Diffusion

Of one substance depends on another substance In solids is more common than gases Is a slow process Occurs from lower concentration to higher concentration

102. Facilitated diffusion differs from active transport as the former

Is an uphill process Require special membrane proteins Does not require ATP Is highly selective in nature

103. Mark the wrongly matched pair

G₁ – Post mitotic gap phase Interkinesis – DNA replication Interphase – Covers > 95% of total duration of cell cycle Pachytene – Activity of recombinase enzyme

104. In all of the given phases, each chromosomes have two chromatids, except

Anaphase II Anaphase I Metaphase I Metaphase II

105. In plant cells, cytokinesis

Occurs before karyokinesis Occur by furrow formation Occur by a cell plate None of the options

106. Terminalisation of chiasmata is seen during

Diakinesis Diplotene Pachytene Zygotene

107. Most cell organelles duplicate in G1 phase but duplication of centriole and mitochondria is seen during

S and G₂ phase respectively G₂ phase G₂ and S phase respectively S phase

108. A tetrad is related with all, except

Contains 4 sister chromatids Not seen in meiosis II Seen is pachytene A bivalent appear as tetrad

109. Daughter cells produced after meiosis I are similar to daughter cells produced after meiosis II, in

Genetic compliment Chromosome number Chromatid number per chromosome DNA content

110. Separation of chromatids are seen during

Telophase Prophase Metaphase Anaphase

111. The phase in which cells are only metabolically active but do not proliferate, is

Interkinesis G₀ phase G₂ phase G₁ phase

112. Activity of all of the given cell organelles can be seen in a germinating fatty or oil containing seed, except

Glyoxysome Mitochondria Chloroplast All of these

113. Polytene chromosomes

Are seen in all insects Are diplotene bivalents Contain one chromonemata per chromosome Show somatic pairing

114. Who explained that “new cells are formed from pre-existing cells”?

Schwann R. Brown Schleiden Virchow

115. Select the wrongly matched pair.

Primary cell wall – Thin, elastic and incapable of extension Middle lamella – Amorphous cementing layer Algal cell wall – Contain cellulose, galactans and manans Plasma membrane – Selectively permeable

116. Endomembrane system does not include

Peroxisome Golgi complex Lysosome Endoplasmic reticulum

117. Both matrix of mitochondria and stroma of chloroplast contains

Enzymes of TCA cycle Protein synthesis machinery Linear dsDNA Enzymes of glucose synthesis

118. The ___ face of golgi complex gives rise to the secretory vesicles

Cis Maturing Forming Convex

119. Gas vacuoles
(a) Are found in all aquatic eukaryotes.
(b) Are membraneless.
(c) Provide buoyancy to the cell.

(a) and (c) are true (a) and (b) are true (b) and (c) are true Only (a) is true

120. Identify single membrane bound cell organelle among these

Plastid Centriole Lysosome Mitochondria

121. The structure which provides gummy or sticky character to bacterial cell, is

Made up of peptidoglycan Found in all bacterial cells Responsible to determine the shape of the cell Comprises of polysaccharides

122. The chromosome having p and q arm

Is telocentric chromosome Is sub-metacentric chromosome Has centromere at its one end Appear V-shaped during anaphase

123. Nucleolus
(a) Is non membrane bound structure
(b) Is larger and more numerous in cells undergoing cell division.
(c) Is the site of 70S ribosome assembly.

Only (a) is true Both (a) and (b) are true Only (b) is true All (a), (b) and (c) are true

124. A. Centrioles form spindle fibres during cell division.
B. Higher plant cells lack spindle fibres as they lack centrioles.

Only A is true Only B is true Both A and B are true Both A and B are false

125. Which of the given is true for cilia but false for prokaryotic flagella?

Basal body is made up of proteinaceous rings Is extension of cell wall Made up of tubulin proteins Help in locomotion

126. The smallest cell organelle is not found in/on

RER Nucleolus Mitochondria Plastids

127. The type of plastid which is not involved in storage of food, is

Chloroplast Elaioplast Chromoplast Amyloplast

128. Mark the following statements as true (T) or false (F) and select the correct option.
A. Outer mitochondrial membrane is more permeable than inner one.
B. Inner membrane of mitochondria contains ATP synthase enzyme.
C. Mitochondrial matrix contains enzymes of Krebs cycle and 80S ribosomes

129. The component of endomembrane system which is involved in protein synthesis is also related with

Glycosylation of proteins Maintenance of osmotic concentration of cell Breakdown of proteins with help of proteases Formation of precursor of enzymes of lysosomes

130. The structure which form living component of dead cell wall, is

Pits Middle lamella Plasmodesmata Plasma membrane

131. All of the following features are true for lipids of plasma membrane, except

May consist of phosphoglycerides Tails are hydrophobic Polar heads are towards the inner sides Major lipids are phospholipids

132. A polysome contains

Single ribosome and single m-RNA Many ribosomes and a single m-RNA Many ribosomes and many m-RNAs Single ribosome and many m-RNAs

133. Identify the incorrect match for prokaryotic cell.

Chromatophore – Photosynthetic pigment Plasmid – Genomic DNA Mesosome – Respiration Glycocalyx – Protects bacterial cell

134. Prokaryotic cell cannot have

Nuclear membrane Plasma membrane Cell wall Chromosome

135. The non membranous cell organelle common to both prokaryote and eukaryote is

Nucleolus Ribosome Centriole Nucleoid

136. Route of air during expiration is

137. Following are the respiratory volumes of a man, his inspiratory capacity and expiratory capacity (in ml) respectively would be

2500 ml, 2100 ml 3000 ml, 1500 ml 3000 ml, 2100 ml 1600 ml, 3600 ml

138. Select the correct statement

pO₂ in atmospheric air is higher than in alveoli CO₂ has to be utilised for catabolic reactions for energy production A single layered pleural membrane increases friction on lung surface O₂ is more soluble in blood than CO₂

139. The factor causing left shift of O₂-dissociation curve is

High pCO₂ High pO₂ Higher temperature High concentration of H⁺ ions

140.

141. Complete the analogy by choosing the correct option.
Absence of O₂ supply to tissues : Anoxia : : Less O₂ supply to tissues : ____

Asphyxia Hypoxia Eupnea Dyspnea

142. Match column I and column II w.r.t. transport of CO₂.

a(i), b(ii), c(iii) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) a(i), b(iii), c(ii)

143. Read statements A and B and choose the correct option.
A. Pharynx is called the sound box.
B. Diaphragm is a dome shaped muscular structure which separates thoracic cavity from abdominal cavity

Both A and B are incorrect Only A is correct Only B is correct Both A and B are correct

144. The main centre of brain that regulates the respiration rate is located in

Forebrain Midbrain Hypothalamus Medulla oblongata

145. Receptors associated with aortic arch and carotid body are sensitive to

146. A person living on plains ascends to stay at an altitude above 8000 ft. from sea level would develop certain symptoms in 8-24 hours. This is called mountain sickness and is due to

Collapse of alveoli Pneumothorax Low pO₂ Low pCO₂

147. Which of the following set of features characterise diffusion membrane in humans?

2 layered, alveoli lined by squamous epithelium, basement substance is absent 3 layered, alveoli lined by squamous epithelium, capillaries surround it 3 layered, alveoli lined by pavement epithelium, total thickness is more than 1 mm None of the options

148. O₂-dissociation curve is best described as

S-shaped curve depicting the relationship between amount of carbonic anhydrase present in RBCs and formation of oxyhaemoglobin A graphic representation of relationship between pO₂ and percentage saturation of Hb with O₂ Graphic relationship between breakdown of glucose into H₂O, CO₂ and energy with diffusion of CO₂ from tissues to blood A graphic representation between amount of CO₂ delivered to the alveoli by every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood

149. Choose the odd one w.r.t. occupational respiratory disorders

Pneumonia Asbestosis Pneumoconiosis Silicosis

150. A device used to measure volume of lungs is

Electrocardiograph Spirometer Electroencephalograph Sphygmomanometer

151. Select a correct statement.

Trachea divides at the level of 6th thoracic vertebra The rate of breathing in a normal healthy man at rest is 22-26 times/min Cardiac notch is present in lower half of right lung Alveoli are the main sites where actual diffusion of O₂ and CO₂ takes place between blood and atmospheric air

152. Select a correct match w.r.t. organisms and their respiratory structures.

Cockroach – Gills Lizards – Moist skin Sparrow – Buccal cavity Earthworm – Moist cuticle

153. Which of the following is not seen during inspiration?

Decrease in intra-pulmonary pressure Relaxation of the diaphragm Contraction of external inter-costal muscles lifting ribs and sternum Increase in the volume of the thoracic chamber

154.

Succinic dehydrogenase Carbonic anhydrase Ribozyme ATPase

155. Gastro-oesophageal sphincter opens in which part of stomach?

Cardiac Pylorus Fundus Body

156. Every 1000 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around ___ ml of O2 to the tissues under normal physiological conditions. Choose the option that fills the correctly.

10 5 50 100

157. Vital capacity does not includeRV

TV IRV RV ERV

158. Select the incorrect statement.

Long exposure to large amount of dust could lead to fibrosis of lungs Inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles is seen in asthma One of the major causes of Emphysema is cigarette smoking Exchange of gases increases in emphysema due to inflation of lungs

159. Hormonal control of the secretion of digestive juices is carried out by the local hormones produced by the gastric and intestinal mucosa. Select an incorrect match of hormone, its source and action.

160. All of the following are functions of the buccal cavity except

Adhering the masticated food particles into a bolus to facilitate swallowing Mastication of food into smaller particles Absorption of certain drugs Carry out about 30% of protein digestiion and absorptive function of ingested food

161. Select the incorrect match.

Bile pigments – Bilirubin and biliverdin Vermiform appendix – Arises from caecum Ciliated epithelial cells – Increase the absorptive surface area Ileum – Highly coiled part of small intestine

162. The undigested and unabsorbed substances from small intestine are passed to the large intestine through

Ileo – caecal valve Sphincter of Boyden Sphincter of Oddi Pyloric sphincter

163. Which of the following enzyme is present only in gastric juice of infants?

Trypsin Sucrase Rennin Lactase

164.

A-Lipase, B-Nucleotidase, C- Maltase A-Lipase, B-Nucleosidase, C-Sucrase A-Amylase, B-Nuclease, C-Lactase A-Lipase, B-Nuclease, C- Amylase

165. Choose the mismatch w.r.t digestion and absorption of ingested food.

Faciliated transport – Absorption of glucose Stomach – Absorption of alcohol Pepsin – Converts dipeptides to peptones Active transport – Absorption of amino acids

166. Which of the given statements is correct?

Most of the digested end products are absorbed into the body through the epithelial lining of the colon The chyme is acted on by the pancreatic juice, bile and finally by the enzymes in the succus entericus Kwashiorkor is produced by protein deficiency always accompanied by calorie deficiency Fats are converted to fatty acids and glycerol in large intestine

167. An elongated and compound gland situated between the limbs of the ‘C’ shaped duodenum is

Spleen Thymus gland Pancreas Adrenal gland

168. Which layer of wall of gastrointestinal tract is modified to form gastric glands and crypts of Lieberkuhn?

Sub-mucosa Mucosa Muscularis Serosa

169.

Five Four Two Three

170. Cystic duct is associated with

Pancreas Liver Parotid gland Gall bladder

171. Read statements A and B and select the correct option.
A. The saliva secreted by salivary glands provides protection against dental caries.
B. Glisson’s capsule is associated with pancreas in mammals.

Both statements A and B are incorrect Statement A is incorrect but B is correct Statement A is correct but B is incorrect Both statements A and B are correct

172. Tooth enamel is A in origin and is secreted by B . Here A and B respectively are

Ectodermal, Odontoblasts Ectodermal, Ameloblasts Mesodermal, Ameloblasts Mesodermal, Osteoblasts

173. A salivary gland situated in the cheek region is

Parotid gland Sub-mandibular gland Sub-lingual gland Tonsil

174. Mammalian liver contains ___ cells that are phagocytic. Choose the option which fills the blank correctly.

Paneth Zymogen Argentaffin Kupffer

175. How many of the following enzymes act on their substrates to release glucose?
(a) Sucrase (b) Lipase
(c) Dipeptidases (d) Trypsin
(e) Lactase

Three Five Four Two

176.

a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)

177. Select an incorrect statement

During swallowing, uvula prevents food from entering trachea Succus entericus is the name given to intestinal juice Anxiety and eating spicy food together in an otherwise normal human, may lead to indigestion Caecum is a small blind sac which hosts some symbiotic micro-organisms

178. The enzyme that is not present in pancreatic juice is

Chymotrypsinogen Amylase Enterokinase Lipase

179. In which type of dentition, a set of deciduous teeth is replaced by a set of permanent teeth?

Thecodont Monophyodont Diphyodont Heterodont

180. Select the incorrect match w.r.t role of following gastric cells

Mucus neckcells – Secrete mucus Oxyntic cells – Secrete HCl Parietal cells – Secrete vitamin B₁₂ Chief cells – Secrete pepsinogen

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The All Chapters mock online tests for NEET NEET All Subjects has been designed by our teachers to improve your understanding of this chapter. These online mock tests are structured so that it feels like real exam condition for students so that they can build their confidence and accuracy of answers. By daily practicing these MCQ based questions for NEET All Subjects with answers students will be able to identify key topics to focus on and improve performance. The mock tests have been updated as per the latest NCERT book for NEET All Subjects to help in your exam preparation.

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Daily practicing the All Chapters mock tests for NEET All Subjects has several benefits as they help to familiarize students with important concepts and effective time management skills. Each mock test for chapter All Chapters given above includes a variety of questions that have been selected from Question Papers for NEET All Subjects and cover all important topics so that you have full preparation. After completing the NEET Online Mock Test For Full Syllabus Set C, NEET students can review the answers to identify mistakes and improve further. Access these free NEET online mock tests anytime and take a step closer to achieving excellence in your All Subjects exams.

How to do Mock Test for NEET All Subjects All Chapters?

Follow these simple steps to attempt the test:
a. The NEET Online Mock Test For Full Syllabus Set C has 15-20 questions for NEET students as per NEET NEET All Subjects Sample Papers pattern.
b. Each All Chapters question has four options, students of NEET must read the question carefully and choose the correct answer.
c. Answer all questions given above for NEET Online Mock Test For Full Syllabus Set C.
d. Once you have answered all the All Chapters NEET MCQ based questions, click on the Submit button.
e. Your score of Online test for NEET Online Mock Test For Full Syllabus Set C will be shown instantly above.
f. To check your mistakes in MCQ based test for All Chapters in All Subjects for NEET, scroll up and see the correct answers.
g. You can attempt the NEET Online Mock Test For Full Syllabus Set C as many times to improve your score in NEET NEET All Subjects exams.

Where can I attempt latest NEET Online Mock Test for NEET All Subjects All Chapters for 2025

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Is the NEET All Subjects All Chapters Mock Online Test based on latest books

Yes, the Mock Online Test for NEET All Subjects All Chapters have been made available here for latest 2025 academic session

How can I improve my scores by using the Mock Online Test in NEET All Subjects for All Chapters

Doing studies and then attempting the Mock Online Test given on studiestoday for NEET subject All Subjects and chapter All Chapters can help you to score better marks in exams

Are there any websites that offer free Mock Online Test for NEET All Subjects for All Chapters

Yes, studiestoday.com provides all latest NEET NEET All Subjects All Chapters Mock Online Test based on latest suggested books for current academic session

Can I check my marks and correct answers after completing mock test for All Chapters NEET All Subjects?

You can check score and correct answers after clicking completing the mock test and clicking submit button for NEET NEET All Subjects All Chapters