NEET Online Mock Test For Full Syllabus Set J

Refer to NEET Online Mock Test For Full Syllabus Set J below. Students of NEET All Subjects can do the below online test and refer to the full list of free NEET All Subjects Mock Online Test provided below. These online Mock tests for All Subjects in NEET have been designed based on the pattern of questions expected to come in the upcoming NEET examinations and the latest syllabus issued by NEET, NCERT and KVS. We have also provided MCQ Questions for NEET All Subjects with answers for all topics.

Online Mock Test for NEET All Subjects All Chapters

In the Mock test for All Subjects All Chapters you can see the list of questions below with options out of which you have to select one correct answer and after completing the test you can check your answers and score. This mock test will help NEET students to check understanding of all topics in All Chapters.

All Chapters All Subjects NEET Mock Test

It is a complete reaction C A B

2. If radius of first Bohr orbit is x, then de Broglie wavelength of electron in third orbits will be

3. Electronegetivity of Rb is equal to that of

K Cs Li Na

4. To neutralize completely 20ml of 0.1 M aq. solution of H₃ PO₃ , the volume of 0.1 M aq. KOH required is

10 ml 40 ml 60 ml None of the options

6. Coefficient of friction between a body and wall of a rotor is 0.5. If radius of the rotor is 2 m, then the minimum angular speed of rotor for which body will not slide down is

45º 0º 37º 53º

8. In the figure shown, the tension in the string shown s (the string is light and pulley is smooth)

30 N 50 N Zero 37.5 N

9. True weight of a person is 60 kg. If the weight of the person as shown by the spring balance in a lift moving vertically downward is 72 kg, then (g = 10 m/s²)

Lift is moving with constant speed Lift is speeding up with 2 m/s² Lift is speeding up with 1.2 m/s² Lift is slowing down with 2 m/s²

10. Speed of a horizontal conveyer belt is 0.4 m/s. If iron pieces are placed on the belt at the rate 10 kg/s then the force required to maintain its speed
is

0.4 N 40 N 10 N 4 N

11. A hydrogen balloon B is tied to the bottom of an air tight container, containing air, in a car at rest. If the car accelerates horizontally towards right with a constant acceleration 10 m/s² then the balloon (g = 10 m/s²)

All are possible Remains vertical Shifts right through 45° Shifts left through 45°

12. At equilibrium string AO is horizontal. If all strings are massless, then tension in string AO is

100 N

200 N

13. In the given figure all pulleys and strings are massless and frictionless. Minimum value of m for which the body A moves is

0.8 kg 1.6 kg 3.2 kg 6.4 kg

14. In the given figure, the maximum horizontal force F with which B can be pulled horizontally such that both move with same acceleration is (g = 10 m/s²)

50 N 125 N 100 N 75 N

15. A chain of length L is placed on a rough horizontal table such that its y length is hanging below the table. Maximum value of y for which chain remains in equilibrium

16. A body of mass m is moving on a circular of radius r in such a way that its kinetic energy k depends on distance covered by body s according to relation k = As, where A is constant. The angular acceleration of body at time t is

17. A man moving in west direction observes wind is blowing towards south. If man double his speed in same direction, then the direction of wind w.r.t. man will be

North-east North-west South-west South-east

18. A particle moves with constant speed from A to D via B and C along the path shown in figure. If time taken by particle to move from A to B, B to C and C to D is same, then magnitude of average acceleration of particle is minimum during its motion from

A to C A to B A to D B to D

19. For a particle moving along a circular path with constant speed, displacement-time graph w.r.t. a point on its circular path will be best shown by

20. A block of mass m attached to the lower end of an inextensible string is in vertical circular motion. At the instant when it is at the lowest point, its acceleration is

Vertically downward Obliquely upward Vertically upward Obliquely downward

21. A rough horizontal circular platform is rotating about its vertical axis. A small block of mass 2 kg kept on it at a distance of 20 cm from the axis is about to slide when the constant angular speed of rotation of the platform is 10 rads^–1. Select the incorrect statement from following

The frictional force acting on the block provides the necessary centripetal force The acceleration of the block is zero The work done by the frictional force on the block is zero The force exerted on the block by the platform is not vertical

22.

23.

Zero 100 N 150 N 50 N

24. In the situation shown in figure the two blocks of masses 10 kg and 5 kg are moving in touch with each other under the influence of applied horizontal force F = 75 N. The force exerted on 5 kg block by 10 kg block is

20 N 75 N 25 N 37.5 N

25.

Never zero

26.

27. A rubber ball of mass 100 g is dropped from a height 4 m on ground and during each collision with ground it rises to a height of 0.5 times the height from which it fell. The total distance covered by it before it stops is

16 m 12 m 4 m 8 m

28.

y = 2x y = x² y = 4x² y = 4x

29. In circular motion, if the velocity and acceleration are not mutually perpendicular, then speed of the particle

May be increasing May be decreasing Both May be increasing and May be decreasing None of the options

30. A particle is moving on a circular path of radius 2m with a constant angular speed of 10 rads^–1. Its average acceleration during half revolution has magnitude

Zero

31. A particle projected from ground with speed 40 m/ s at an angle 30° with horizontal is at same height from ground at t = 3 s and t = 7 s. The average velocity of particle in time interval t = 2 s to t = 8 s will be [neglecting air resistance]

20 m/s Zero 17.8 m/s None of the options

32.

33. A person capable of swimming in still water with 5 km h^–1, crosses a river 500 m wide in 7.5 minute along the shortest path. The speed of flow of water in the river is

4 km h^–1 1.5 km h^–1 3 km h^–1 5 km h^–1

34.

35. If graph between velocity v and time t for a particle moving along straight line is parabola symmetric about time axis, then the relation between acceleration a and time t for particle is

36.

1 : 2 1 : 1

37. A small stone is projected in vertically upward direction from ground by a boy at time t = 0. It is at the same height at t = 3 s and t = 5 s. The
maximum height reached by the stone is (g = 10 ms^–2)

80 m 125 m 85 m 75 m

38.

50 units

39. An object dropped from the top of the tower cover a distance 9d in the last second of its journey. If d is the distance covered by object in first second of its journey, then the speed with which it will collide with the ground will be [g = 10 m/s²]

50 m/s 22.5 m/s 37.5 m/s 75 m/s

40. The position x of a particle moving along x-axis varies with time t as x = 6t² – t³ where x is in metre and t is in second. The speed of the particle is maximum along the +x direction at position

x = 16 m x = 4 m x = 2 m x = 8 m

41. Select the incorrect statement from the following

A particle moving with constant velocity must have constant speed The magnitude of velocity is always equal to speed A particle at rest at an instant must be unaccelerated at that instant Displacement is not affected by the shift of position of the chosen origin

42.

Ex F²

43.

Torque Angle Velocity Force

44. The mass of a solid cube is measured to be 5.00 ± 0.05 kg and its length is measured to be 10.0 ± 0.1 cm. The percentage error in the measurement of its density will be

4% 2% 11% 1.3%

45. If density (D), acceleration due to gravity (g) and frequency (f) are taken as base quantities then the dimensions of force will be

46.

60° 45° 30° 90°

47. The angular diameter of the sun measured from earth is 0.001 radian. If 1 AU = 1.5 × 10¹¹ m, then the diameter of the sun (in meters) is

1.5 × 10⁵ m 1.5 × 10¹¹ m 1.5 × 10⁸ m 7.5 × 10⁷ m

48.

Relative density Planck’s constant Time Frequency

49. Which of the following phenomena is the evidence of the existence of weak forces?

Stability of the nucleus of an atom Nuclear fusion

50. One of the most accepted species concept is biological concept. Which of the following is not related to it?

Based on reproductive isolation Species represent genetically closed system Members of same species show similarity for structure and function Believes in fixed and immutable nature of species

51. Choose the odd one taxonomic categories not utilized by Carolus Linnaeus in the taxonomic hierarchy

Class, order Genus, species Variety, class Kingdom, family

52. Mycoplasma are not virus because

They can multiply in abiotic medium having sterols They have ds-DNA and ss-RNA They can pass through bacteriological filters They lack cell wall

53. Thermoacidophilic archaebacteria are capable of tolerating high temperature as well as high acidity. They oxidised sulphur to sulphuric acid and reduces sulphur to H₂S in

Aerobic and anaerobic conditions respectively Aerobic condition only Anaerobic and aerobic conditions respectively Anaerobic condition only

54. Which of the following activity is present in heterocyst of cyanobacteria?

Photophosphorylation PS-II activities CO₂ fixation O₂ evolution

55. Purple non-sulphur bacteria differs from green nonsulphur bacteria in

Using non-sulphur aliphatic organic compounds as electrons and H⁺ donor Having chlorobium chlorophyll pigment Having bacteriopurpurin pigment Having bacterioviridin pigment

56. In five kingdom system, eukaryotic organisms occur in __________ kingdoms while photosynthetic organisms occur in _________ kingdoms

Three, Three Four, Four Two, Three Four, Three

57. Mark the incorrect statement

Plant species in botanical gardens are grown for identification purposes Growth and reproduction are mutually inclusive events for mosses Cellular organisation of the body is the defining feature of life forms Isolated metabolic reactions in vitro are living reactions

58. The eigen functions are related with

Photoelectron effect Orbitals Bohr orbits Photons

59. Chloride of an element (X) contains 46.75% of element. If formula of oxide of element is MO, molar mass of element is

31.16 62.33 15.08 7.56

60. Given set of quantum numbers is possible for how many electrons? n = 3 l = 2 m = 0

1 5 2 10

61. For the given five elements
Mg, Na, O, F, Ne
Which of the following is the correct increasing order of ionization energy?

Mg < Na < O < F < Ne Mg < Na < O < F < Ne Na < Mg < F < O < Ne Na < Mg < O < F < Ne

62.

KE₁ > KE₂ None of the options

63. The ‘d’ orbital present in dsp² is

64. Correct order of BP in the following compounds which can form H-bonding?

65. Which of the following is the correct sequence for decreasing order of number of radial nodes present in the given orbitals?

66. Ratio between the wavelength of first line of Lyman series to wavelength of last line of Balmer series, in Li²⁺ spectrum

3 : 4 4 : 3 1 : 3 3 : 1

67.

–1 1

68. Dimension of Plank’s constant is same as that of

Angular momentum Linear momentum Energy Pressure

69. Weight of gases formed when 0.5 mole KNO₃ is heated is

8 g 36 g 42 g 16 g

70. The orbital angular momentum for 3p, 3d is given as respectively

71. Which of the following is polar?

Both None of the options

72. Which of the following order correctly represents the increasing order of 3rd ionisation energies of given elements?

C < O < N N < C < O O < C < N C < N < O

73.

None of the options

74. Wave number for highest energy for Lyman series transition possible in He⁺ spectrum is given by

2 R 4 R

75. When acetamide is converted into methyl cyanide then the change in hybridised state of carbon of amide group is

No change

76. Which statement is incorrect for PCl₅ ?

Axial P–Cl bond is shorter than equatorial P–Cl bond The shape of PC ₅ is trigonal bipyramidal The hybridised state of P is sp³d The geometry of PCl₅ is trigonal bipyramidal

77. Which has highest bond order?

N₂ CO⁺ NO⁺ None of the options

78. The potential energy of the electron present in the ground state of Li²⁺ ion is represented by

79. Partial charge on oxygen in PO₄^3– ion is

–0.25 –0.75 –3 None of the options

80.

1 mole 0.50 mole 0.25 mole 0.75 mole

81. The correct order of increasing dipole moment of halo methanes is

82. The carbon exists as C₂ molecule in vapour phase. The correct statement regarding C₂ is

83. The correct comparison of IE is.

Pb > Sn Ne > He Na > Li Al > Ga

84.

Three types of Cr – O bonds are present All of these Two triangular units are joined through bridged oxygen The hybridization of bridged oxygen is sp³

85. Lithium has maximum reducing power due to

Low sublimation energy High hydration energy Small size All of the options

86. The ppm hardness in terms of CaCO₃ of water having 1 mg CaCl₂ per litre is

100 / 111 1 111 / 100 1 × 10^–6

87. In an experiment, light of suitable frequency is made incident on a metal surface. Which of the graphs are wrong? (KE= kinetic energy of electron)

(A) and (C) (A) and (D) (B) and (D) (B) and (C)

88.

89. Heating 0.32 g of an organic compound with concentrated HNO₃ and BaCl₂ gives 0.932 g BaSO₄ . What is the percentage of S in given compound?

60 20 40 80

90. Which of the following has negative value of electron gain enthalphy?

He Mg Na N

91. A compound contains 28% nitrogen and 72% of a metal by weight. Three atoms of metal combine with two atoms of N. The atomic weight of metal is

48 12 24 36

92. In which conversion hybridisation of the central atom changes?

Both None of the options

93. For maximum extent of covalent character in ionic compound

Large cation + small anion + low charge on ions Small cation + large anion + high charge on ions Small cation + small anion + low charge on ions Small cation + large anion + low charge on ions

94. What is the percentage ionic character in HF?

50 40 38 43

95. The weight of 25% H₂SO₄ solution required to react completely with 25 g CaCO₃ is

98 g 24.5 g 100 g 49 g

96. What will be the equivalent mass of Cu₂S when it is converted into Cu²⁺ and SO₂, if its molecular mass is M?

None of the options

97. Which of the following is paramagnetic?

NO NO₂ O₂ All of the options

98. All the chordates possess four diagnostic characters either in the embryonic or adult stage. These include all except

Hollow nerve cord and lies ventral to the notochord Solid unjointed stiff but flexible rod like notochord present on the mid-dorsal side A series of paired narrow openings, the gill slits on the lateral sides of the pharynx at some stage of life Post anal tail which is reduced or absent in many adult chordates

99. Which of the following pairs of animals has non glandular skin?

Crocodile and Tiger Frog and Pigeon Chamaeleon and Turtle Snake and Frog

100. Echinoderms are spiny skinned animals having affinity with the chordates but have many degenerate characters also. Which of the following can’t be included as degenerate character of it?

Mesodermal endoskeleton Lack of head Reduced circulatory system Absence of excretory system

101. Which one of the following pairs of animals are similar to each other pertaining to the feature stated against them?

Pleurobrachia and Ctenophora – Bioluminescence Ascaris and Ancylostoma – Metameric segmentation Obelia and Gorgonia – Metagenesis Asterias and Echinus – Aristotle’s lantern present

102. Which of the following is sea fan?

Meandrina Tubipora Madrepora Gorgonia

103. If ‘X’ type of animal has its body divisible into cephalothorax and abdomen, has simple eyes, antenna are absent. This ‘X’ type of animal belongs to

Arachnida Insecta Crustacea Chilopoda

104. Which of the following is not a matching pair of an animal and a certain phenomenon it exhibits ?

Planaria – Absorb nutrients from host directly through the body surface Aslidia – Exclusively marine Pinctada – Forms the pearls Amphioxus – A chordate animal having flame cells as excretory structures

105. Which of the following is correctly matched?

Archiannelids – No external or internal segmentation, septa absent, setae present Oligochaeta – Body has simple and few septa, indirect development with metamorphosis Hirudinea – Ectoparasite have peculiar connective tissue and have haemocoelomic system Polychaeta – Well developed parapodia, setae absent and direct development

106. Which of the following reason is most appropriate for poor power of locomotion in Ascaris?

It has syncytial epidermis It has suckers at the anterior end Its body wall lacks circular muscles It is an endoparasite

107. Which of the following is not a flat worm

Fasciola Wuchereria Taenia Planaria

108. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. Hydra

Body wall has both sensory and nerve cells Hydra recognizes its food because of chemical stimulus by the presence of glutathione in the tissue fluid of the prey Hydra can digest proteins, carbohydrates but has no enzymes to digest fats Nitrogenous excretory product in Hydra is ammonia and it is removed through general body surface

109. Identify A, B, C and D marked in the following chart The correct option is

A – Shipworm
B – A fish
C – Ophiura
D – Meandrina A – Shipworm
B – An insect
C – Ophiura
D – Meandrina A – Tusk shell
B – A fish
C – Echinus
D – Madrepora None of the options

110. “Taxa can indicate categories at different levels. In the above given statement is well justified by which of the following options?

Rice, Wheat Potato, Makoi Monocots, Plants Lion, Tiger

111. Microscopic lichen propagules produced in large numbers inside the pustules like structures called

Soredia Cephalodia Conidia Isidia

112. Lichens are slow growing dual organisms. The slow growth is not due to

Low moisture Cool temperature Non availability of food More than one option is correct

113. Rejuvenescent spores producing organisms store food in form of

Chrysolaminarin Glycogen Leucosin, amylopectin and oils Laminarean starch

114. The Lycoperdon and Methanobacterium are similar in

Tolerant to high temperature due to the presence of homopolar bonds in protein Possessing N-acetyl glucasamine in cell wall Presence of chlorophyll a Having anoxygenic photosynthesis

115. Favourable condition for nitrogenase activity in heterocyst of BGA is due to

Presence of thick wall Loss of PS-I Loss of PS-II More than one option is correct

116. The characteristic absent in most primitive group of fungi is

Mycelium is like Vaucheria, an alga Cellulosic or chitinous cell wall Sex organs are completely eliminated Fruiting bodies are absent

117. In club fungi and sac fungi, food is mainly stored in the form of

Oligosaccharides and fungal cellulose Lipids and proteins Glycogen and oil droplets Glucose and fructose

118. Coordinated movements of rows of cilia causes the water laden with food to be steered into the gullet in

Paramoecium Plasmodium Amoeba Trypanosoma

119.

A – Favourable condition, B – Sporocarp A – Favourable condition, B–Aggregation stage A – Unfavourable condition, B – Myxamoebae A – Unfavourable condition, B – Fruiting bodies

120. The complete compilation of information about any taxon / genus / species is called

Catalogue Flora Manual Monograph

121. Choose correct option w.r.t. given below figure NEET-Online-Mock-Test-For-Full-Syllabus-Set-J

Possess non-contractile vacuole Show mixotrophic nutrition Possess flexible body due to lipoidal pellicle None of the options

122. In ectomycorrhiza

Little of the fungus lies on the root surface Some hyphal tips pass into cortical cells Part of fungi lives in the intercellular spaces of cortex More than one option is correct

123. Choose the incorrect statement

Higher the category, higher the number of organisms There are more than 20 intermediate categories Higher the category more is the specificity Higher the category, lower will be the number of common characters

124. Which of the following is not the defining properties of living beings?

Intrinsic growth Sexual reproduction Cellular organisation Irritability

125. Who showed that viruses could be crystallised and crystals consist largely of proteins?

D. J. Ivanowsky M. W. Beijerinek Robert Koch W. M. Stanley

126. Cholera, typhoid, tetanus and citrus canker diseases are caused by

Archaebacteria Xanthomonas Eubacteria Vibrio

127. Select correct statement w.r.t. TMV
a. It has single stranded helical RNA
b. Possess peplomeres
c. It is 3000 nm long and 180 nm in diameter
d. Capsomeres : nucleotides ratio is 1 : 3 respectively
e. It is elongated rod like

a, c, d and e b, c and d a, d and e a, b, c and d

128. How many of the given below fungi have prolonged dikaryophase in between plasmogamy and karyogamy in the sexual life cycle?

Four Three Five Two

129. Plasmogamy is brought about by which of the following methods in club fungi?

Spermatization and somatogamy Gametangial contact Gametic fusion and somatogamy Gametangial copulation and contact

130. Holophytic protistans with siliceous body wall show which one of the following features?

They serve as sewage pollution indicator Absence of central vacuole Have chlorophyll-a and b They produce spinning movement

131. Sexual reproduction involving meiosis and syngamy was first originated in the kingdom

Fungi Eubacteria Protista Archaebacteria

132. Oxyphotobacteria with nitrogen fixation ability are

Frankia and Clostridium Xanthomonas and Nostoc Rhizobium and Aulosira Anabaena and Aulosira

133. Archaebacteria do not differ from eubacteria in which one of the following features?

Presence of monolayer membrane Presence of introns Absence of double envelope system Absence of muramic acid in cell wall

134. Select correct statement with respect to criteria laid down for two kingdom system

Complexity of cell structure Mode of nutrition Photosynthetic pigments and reserve food materials Phylogeny

135. Museums have collections of preserved plants and animals for study and reference. These are prepared to preserve

Parts of gymnosperms and ferns More than one option is correct Mosses and ferns Algae and fungi

136. Members of the archaebacteria
(a) May possess bacteriorhodopsin
(b) Possess branched chain lipids
(c) May possess high temperature tolerant enzymes
(d) May associated with body of eukaryotic organisms

(b) & (c) only (a) & (c) only (a), (b) & (c) only (a), (b), (c) & (d)

137. PPLO are not associated with which of the following features?

Nucleoid is absent Smallest living organisms Insensitive to lysozyme and penicillin Flexible cell membrane

138. Feature of the cyanobacteria which resembles green plant is (a) Presence of chlorophyll a
(b) Absence of carotenoids
(c) Oxygenic photosynthesis
(d) Presence of phycobilins

(a) & (c) only (d) only (c) & (d) only (a) & (b) only

139. True type of sexual reproduction in bacteria is absent but genetic recombination can be achieved through primitive type of DNA transfer. For which of the following methods of DNA transfer, contact between two bacterial cells is required?

Conjugation Transduction Transformation More than one option is correct

140. Which of the following is incorrect for photosynthetic prokaryotes?

Can possess pigment like bacteriopurpurin, bacterioviridin BGA has PS-I and PS-II Utilization of only inorganic compounds as electron source Chloroplast is absent

141. Bacteria are grouped under four categories based on the shape. Which of the following is most common shape of bacteria?

Comma, Spiral Spherical, Comma Rod, Spherica Spiral, Rod

142. Bacteria are associated with which of the given below feature?

Diverse metabolic activity is absent due to their simple cellular organisation Presence of one single stranded DNA Cellulosic cell wall Mainly show heterotrophic nutrition

143. The three domain system given by Carl Woese is different from other as it is based on

Morphological study Genetical study Embryological study Physiological study

144. In five kingdom classification system chemoautotrophs are placed in how many kingdoms?

Two Four Three One

145. Mark the correct option w.r.t. features given in the box

Neurospora– (d), (e), (i) Puccinia– (b), (c), (f) Navicula– (a), (g), (j) Sclerospora– (b), (h), (i)

146. Herbarium is a store house of dried, pressed plant specimen which does not show/possess

Accurate identification Detailed description about plant species on herbarium sheet Arrangement of plant specimen according to standard classification system irrespective of place of collection Association with botanical gardens

147. The correct comparison of IE is

Al > Ga Ne > He Na > Li None of the options

148. The most primitive reptiles, closest to early amphibians and were without temporal fossae in the skull belongs to which group?

Cotylosauria Ichthyopterygia Ophidia Squamata

149. During its life cycle, Fasciola hepatica (liver fluke) infects its intermediate host and primary host at the following larval stages respectively

Redia and Miracidium Miracidium and Metacercaria Metacercaria and Cercaria Cercaria and Redia

150. Which of the following is a character of echinoderms but not of molluscs?

An excretory system is absent They undergo torsion during development Presence of a rasping tongue like organ used for feeding called as radula They are one of the earliest in evolution to develop an efficient excretory system

151. Given below is a table mentioning the characteristics of chondrichthyes and osteichthyes. Which of the following character is not correctly described?

152. In sharks the skin is tough and covered with _____ scales and the jaws of sharks are famous for very strong backwardly directed ______ teeth

Cycloid, Pleurodont Placoid, Acrodont Placoid, Pleurodont Ctenoid, Acrodont

153. Which of the following animal is with single occipital condyle, twelve pairs of cranial nerves and is poikilothermal?

Rhacophorus (flying frog) Draco (flying dragon) Psittacula (parrot) Scoliodon (dog fish)

154. Nestling are too young birds to leave the nest. Their body is coverd by which category of feathers that provide necessary heat?

Plumules Down feather Both None of the options

155. Which of the following statement is incorrect? A. In insects gaseous exchange takes place directly between the outer atmosphere and tissues through the tracheal system
B. Even though air contains 20% oxygen most fish, when out of water die of suffocation due to lack of oxygen
C. In fishes counter-current mechanism ensures a continuous gradient of concentration difference between blood and water, so that diffusion continues all along the gells
D. There is ‘dead air space’ in avian lungs, as there is in mammalian lungs

A, C and D C and D D only C only

156. ________ enables a fish to detect motionless objects at a distance by the movement of water deflected off the object

Swim bladder Laternal line system containing neuromast organs Gill cover and ear Counter current system

157. Which reason constitute arthropods as the largest group of animal kingdom?

The jointed appendages have become specialised for providing division of labour among regions Tracheal respiration supplies oxygen directly to the tissue and do not require blood for respiration Tough cuticle protects the arthropods against predators All of the options

158. Identify the animal in the photograph below. Which of the following is not a correct reason for its identification?

It is a male Ascaris (round worm), post anal tail is curved It is a female Ascaris (round worm), post anal tail is straight The body is circular, hence it is a round worm. Alimentary canal is complete with mouth and anus It is bilaterally symmetric unsegmented

159. In diagram below illustrates a Medusa and a Polyp. In which of the following organisms this body form is dominant, respectively?

160. Which of the following is champion of migratory birds?

Siberian crane Aptenodytes Brown headed geese Arctic tern

161. Match the incorrect set

162. Which of the following is not a matching pair of the kind of excretory organ and an animal and its phylum/sub-phylum?

163. In earthworm coelom acts as a hydraulic skeleton. What happens to a segment in an earthworm when the circular muscles in that segment contract?

It increases in diameter It bends to one side It elongates It shortens

164. In Hydra, digestion takes place

Only intracellularly Only extracellularly In a digestive tract In a gastrovascular cavity and intracellularly

165. Which of the following is not a matching pair of an animal and a certain phenomenon it exhibits?

166. Which of the following is correct matching of phylum, its coelom and distinctive features?

167. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of sponges?

Fertilisation is generally external and development is indirect They are primitive multicellular animals and have cellular level of organisation Digestion is intracellular None of the options

168. Given below are four matchings of an animal and its kind of respiratory organ.
A. Spider – Book lungs
B. Crayfish – Book gills
C. Nereis – Parapodia
D. Herdmania – Gill slits
The correct matching is

A, B and C only A and D only A, C and D only B and D only

169. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. one example for each of the following?

A flightless bird present in Antarctica : Aptenodytes A fish with poison sting : Torpedo An animal which migrates for : Petromyzon
spawning into rivers. Their
characteristic ammocoete
larvae after metamorphosis
migrate to ocean The characteristic feature of : Struthio
Aves are the presence of
feathers and most of them can
fly except flightless birds like

170. Which of following set of mammals belongs to common order?

Camel, Elephant, Girrafe Platypus, Kangaroo, flying fox Horse, Donkey, Rhinoceros Dog, Cat, Rat

171. Column II below consists of brief description of organisms. Tick mark the wrong match.

None of the options

172. Which of the following characters of mammals is/ are without exception?
A. Presence of milk producing mammary glands.
B. Seven cervical vertebrae.
C. Presence of external ears or pinnae.
D. Viviparity.
E. The testes are present outside the abdominal cavity in scrotal sacs.
F. Presence of diaphragm. Options

A only A, B & E A & F A & B

173. Which of following features is not correctly stated for reptiles

Fertilisation – Internal Scales – Mesodermal Development – Direct None of the options

174. Which of the following animals illustrated in diagram given below is/are dioecious, coelomate, with metameric segment and closed circulatory system? NEET-Online-Mock-Test-For-Full-Syllabus-Set-J-1

A only A & C B & D A & B

175. Which of the following statements in column II is not matching with the item given in column I?

None of the options

176. Given below are types of cells present in some animals. Each one is specialized to perform a single specific function except

Nematocytes Interstitial cells Gastrodermal cells Choanocytes

177. In which one of the following genus name, its two characters and its class/phylum are correctly matched?

178. The figure shows two animals A and B. Select the common characteristics of these animals NEET-Online-Mock-Test-For-Full-Syllabus-Set-J-2

Both A and B are aquatic and dioecious Both A and B have chitinous exoskeleton In both circulatory system is open type Both A and B are belong to Phylum mollusc

179. Which of the following is incorrect match about the class mentioned and its distinctive features?

None of the options

180. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t type of scales, its character and example?

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