These chapter-wise CBSE Class 10 Science MCQs, ready for 2026-27, are made to help you learn the current exam pattern and grow more confident solving Science problems.
Getting the Most From Science Objective Questions
- Covers several formats beyond regular MCQs - Assertion-Reasoning, Case-based, and Fill-in-the-blanks for Science.
- Each Science chapter has its own set, so you can check your understanding topic by topic.
- Answers are explained clearly for every Science question, so the reasoning actually makes sense.
- Built around the 2026 Science textbook from CBSE, following their latest guidelines.
Browse Class 10 Science MCQs by Chapter
Access the latest 2026-27 question sets for Science below. These MCQs are a solid way to check your own understanding, and spot weak areas before your exams.
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Quick Practice - Try a Few Questions First Pick a chapter below, answer a few questions instantly, then jump to the full set list for more. Q1.A chemical reaction in which two compounds exchange their ions to form two new compounds is called: Answer: (a) A double displacement reaction. In a double displacement reaction, the positive and negative ions of the two reacting compounds swap partners.
Q2.A reaction in which a single compound breaks down into two or more simpler substances is known as a: Answer: (a) Decomposition reaction. Heating calcium carbonate to form calcium oxide and carbon dioxide is a common example of decomposition.
Q3.The process of oxidation involves: Answer: (a) The gain of oxygen or the loss of hydrogen by a substance. Oxidation is generally understood as a substance gaining oxygen or losing hydrogen during a reaction.
Q4.A balanced chemical equation must have the same number of atoms of each element on: Answer: (a) Both the reactant side and the product side. This reflects the law of conservation of mass, which every valid chemical equation must obey.
Q5.Rusting of iron is an example of which type of chemical change? Answer: (a) A slow oxidation reaction with oxygen and moisture. Rust forms when iron reacts slowly with oxygen and water present in the surrounding air.
Q1.Acids generally turn blue litmus paper: Answer: (a) Red. Litmus paper is a common indicator, and acids characteristically turn blue litmus to red.
Q2.Bases generally turn red litmus paper: Answer: (a) Blue. Just as acids turn blue litmus red, bases turn red litmus paper blue.
Q3.The pH scale is used to measure: Answer: (a) How acidic or basic (alkaline) a solution is. The pH scale typically ranges from 0 to 14, with lower values indicating acidity and higher values indicating basicity.
Q4.A neutral solution, such as pure water, generally has a pH value close to: Answer: (a) 7. A pH of 7 represents a neutral solution, neither acidic nor basic.
Q5.The reaction between an acid and a base, which typically produces a salt and water, is called a: Answer: (a) Neutralisation reaction. Neutralisation reactions balance the acidic and basic properties, resulting in a salt and water as products.
Q1.Which of the following is a general physical property of metals? Answer: (a) They are usually good conductors of heat and electricity. Most metals conduct heat and electricity well, which is one of their defining physical properties.
Q2.The ability of metals to be drawn into thin wires is known as: Answer: (a) Ductility. Ductility specifically refers to a metal's ability to be stretched into wires without breaking.
Q3.The ability of metals to be hammered or rolled into thin sheets is known as: Answer: (a) Malleability. Malleability describes how easily a metal can be shaped into sheets under pressure.
Q4.In the reactivity series, metals placed higher are generally: Answer: (a) More reactive than metals placed lower. The reactivity series arranges metals in order of decreasing reactivity, with more reactive metals at the top.
Q5.Nonmetals generally differ from metals in that nonmetals are usually: Answer: (a) Poor conductors of heat and electricity. Unlike metals, most nonmetals do not conduct electricity well and lack metallic lustre.
Q1.Carbon atoms are able to form a huge variety of compounds mainly because of their ability to: Answer: (a) Form strong covalent bonds and link with other carbon atoms in chains and rings. This property, known as catenation, along with covalent bonding, allows carbon to form countless compounds.
Q2.Compounds made up of only carbon and hydrogen atoms are called: Answer: (a) Hydrocarbons. Hydrocarbons form the basis of many fuels and organic compounds, made purely of carbon and hydrogen.
Q3.A covalent bond is formed between two atoms when they: Answer: (a) Share a pair of electrons. Covalent bonding involves atoms sharing electron pairs, which is common in carbon compounds.
Q4.The property of carbon atoms to form long chains by bonding with other carbon atoms is called: Answer: (a) Catenation. Catenation is unique to a few elements, and carbon shows it to an especially high degree.
Q5.Ethanol is an example of a carbon compound containing which functional group? Answer: (a) Alcohol (-OH) group. Ethanol contains the -OH functional group, which defines it as an alcohol.
Q1.The process by which green plants prepare their own food using sunlight is called: Answer: (a) Photosynthesis. Photosynthesis uses sunlight, carbon dioxide, and water to produce glucose and oxygen in green plants.
Q2.The process of breaking down food to release energy within living cells is called: Answer: (a) Respiration. Respiration releases the energy stored in food molecules so cells can use it for their functions.
Q3.In human beings, digested food is mainly absorbed into the bloodstream through the walls of the: Answer: (a) Small intestine. The small intestine's highly folded inner surface allows efficient absorption of digested nutrients.
Q4.The main function of the human excretory system is to: Answer: (a) Remove waste products, such as urea, from the body. Organs like the kidneys filter and remove harmful waste products from the blood.
Q5.In the human circulatory system, the heart primarily functions to: Answer: (a) Pump blood throughout the body. The heart's rhythmic contractions push blood through the network of blood vessels to reach all body tissues.
Q1.In the human body, quick responses to stimuli such as touching a hot object are controlled mainly by the: Answer: (a) Nervous system. The nervous system transmits rapid electrical signals that allow the body to respond quickly to stimuli.
Q2.A reflex action is best described as: Answer: (a) An automatic, quick response to a stimulus, without conscious thought. Reflex actions, like pulling a hand away from something hot, happen almost instantly and involuntarily.
Q3.Chemical coordination in the human body is mainly carried out by: Answer: (a) Hormones released by endocrine glands. Hormones travel through the bloodstream to regulate various body functions over a longer time scale than nerve impulses.
Q4.In plants, the response of a plant's stem growing towards light is an example of: Answer: (a) Phototropism. Phototropism describes the growth movement of a plant part in response to light direction.
Q5.The basic functional unit of the human nervous system, responsible for transmitting signals, is the: Answer: (a) Neuron. Neurons are specialised cells that carry electrical impulses throughout the nervous system.
Q1.Reproduction in which a new organism develops from a single parent, without the involvement of gametes, is called: Answer: (a) Asexual reproduction. In asexual reproduction, offspring are produced from a single parent, often genetically identical to it.
Q2.Reproduction that involves the fusion of male and female gametes is known as: Answer: (a) Sexual reproduction. Sexual reproduction combines genetic material from two parents, producing offspring with genetic variation.
Q3.In flowering plants, the process of transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma is called: Answer: (a) Pollination. Pollination is an essential step that must occur before fertilisation can take place in flowering plants.
Q4.Which of the following is an example of asexual reproduction seen in simple organisms like Hydra? Answer: (a) Budding. In budding, a new small individual grows out from the parent organism's body and eventually detaches.
Q5.The fusion of a male gamete and a female gamete to form a zygote is called: Answer: (a) Fertilisation. Fertilisation marks the beginning of the development of a new individual in sexual reproduction.
Q1.Heredity refers to the: Answer: (a) Passing of traits from parents to offspring. Heredity explains why offspring often resemble their parents in various physical traits.
Q2.The basic units responsible for carrying hereditary information from parents to offspring are called: Answer: (a) Genes. Genes, located on chromosomes, carry the instructions for inherited traits.
Q3.According to Mendel's experiments, a trait that appears in the first generation of a cross, masking another trait, is called: Answer: (a) The dominant trait. Mendel observed that dominant traits appear in offspring even when only one parent contributes that trait's gene.
Q4.A trait that remains hidden in the presence of a dominant trait but can reappear in later generations is called: Answer: (a) Recessive. Recessive traits only show up when an organism inherits the recessive form of the gene from both parents.
Q5.In humans, the sex of a child is generally determined by the type of chromosome contributed by the: Answer: (a) Father. Since the mother always contributes an X chromosome, it is the father's X or Y chromosome that determines the child's sex.
Q1.According to the laws of reflection, the angle of incidence is always: Answer: (a) Equal to the angle of reflection. This is the fundamental law of reflection, true for all reflecting surfaces including mirrors.
Q2.A concave mirror is generally used in torches and headlights because it can: Answer: (a) Converge light rays to produce a strong parallel beam. Placing a source at the focus of a concave mirror produces a strong, parallel beam of reflected light.
Q3.The bending of light as it passes from one transparent medium to another is called: Answer: (a) Refraction. Refraction occurs because light changes speed when moving between media of different densities.
Q4.The refractive index of a medium is a measure of: Answer: (a) How much the medium bends light passing through it. A higher refractive index generally means light bends more as it enters that medium.
Q5.A convex lens is also known as a: Answer: (a) Converging lens. A convex lens bends parallel light rays inward so that they converge, or meet, at a focal point.
Q1.The part of the human eye responsible for focusing light onto the retina is the: Answer: (a) Lens. The eye's lens adjusts its shape to focus light from objects at different distances onto the retina.
Q2.The ability of the eye's lens to adjust its focal length to focus on both near and distant objects is called: Answer: (a) Accommodation. This adjustment ability, called accommodation, allows clear vision at varying distances.
Q3.A person who can see nearby objects clearly but has difficulty seeing distant objects is said to have: Answer: (a) Myopia (short-sightedness). Myopia occurs when the eye focuses images in front of the retina rather than exactly on it for distant objects.
Q4.The splitting of white light into its constituent colours when it passes through a prism is called: Answer: (a) Dispersion. A prism bends different colours of light by different amounts, spreading them out into a spectrum.
Q5.The sky appears blue during the day mainly because of the: Answer: (a) Scattering of shorter wavelengths of sunlight by particles in the atmosphere. Shorter wavelengths of light, such as blue, are scattered more strongly by molecules in the atmosphere.
Q1.Electric current is defined as the rate of flow of: Answer: (a) Electric charge. Current measures how much electric charge passes through a conductor per unit time.
Q2.According to Ohm's Law, at constant temperature, the current through a conductor is directly proportional to: Answer: (a) The potential difference across its ends. Ohm's Law states that current increases proportionally with voltage, provided resistance stays constant.
Q3.The SI unit of electrical resistance is the: Answer: (a) Ohm. Resistance, which opposes the flow of current, is measured in ohms.
Q4.When resistors are connected in series, the total resistance of the combination is: Answer: (a) The sum of the individual resistances. In a series combination, resistances simply add up because the same current flows through each resistor.
Q5.The SI unit used to measure electric power is the: Answer: (a) Watt. Electric power, the rate of energy consumption, is measured in watts.
Q1.A magnetic field is produced around a conductor when: Answer: (a) An electric current flows through it. This discovery, that current-carrying conductors produce a magnetic field, was first made by Oersted.
Q2.The magnetic field lines around a straight current-carrying conductor form: Answer: (a) Concentric circles around the conductor. These concentric circular field lines surround the wire and their direction depends on the current's direction.
Q3.A solenoid is generally described as: Answer: (a) A coil of wire wound in the form of a cylinder, used to produce a strong magnetic field. When current flows through a solenoid, it behaves similarly to a bar magnet.
Q4.An electromagnet is created by: Answer: (a) Passing current through a coil wound around a soft iron core. The magnetic effect of current, combined with the soft iron core, produces a strong, temporary magnet.
Q5.The phenomenon in which a changing magnetic field induces a current in a nearby conductor is called: Answer: (a) Electromagnetic induction. Electromagnetic induction is the underlying principle used in devices such as electric generators.
Q1.An ecosystem is best described as: Answer: (a) A community of living organisms interacting with each other and their physical environment. An ecosystem includes both living organisms and non-living components, all interacting together.
Q2.In a food chain, organisms that make their own food, such as green plants, are called: Answer: (a) Producers. Producers form the base of nearly every food chain by converting sunlight into food energy through photosynthesis.
Q3.Organisms that break down dead plants and animals into simpler substances are called: Answer: (a) Decomposers. Decomposers, such as certain bacteria and fungi, recycle nutrients back into the environment.
Q4.As energy passes from one trophic level to the next in a food chain, the amount of usable energy generally: Answer: (a) Decreases at each successive level. A large portion of energy is lost as heat at each step, so less energy is available at higher trophic levels.
Q5.Substances such as certain pesticides that do not break down easily in the environment are described as: Answer: (a) Non-biodegradable. Non-biodegradable substances persist in the environment and can accumulate through the food chain.
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FAQs
For the 2026-27 session, MCQs and objective-type questions carry around 20% weightage. CBSE has introduced 30% competency based questions as MCQs and they are important part of the Class 10 Science paper.
You can access the latest chapter-wise MCQs for Class 10 Science for free from StudiesToday.com. All questions are based on the latest syllabus and current academic year.
Yes, our Science practice bank includes the new pattern of Assertion Reasoning and Case Study based MCQs. They have been designed to test the analytical skills of Class 10 students.
Solving Class 10 Science MCQs regularly improves speed and accuracy as these are objective questions can get you 100% marks if your understanding of the topic is clear.
Yes, all Class 10 Science MCQs and answers are accessible on any device at your convenience.
No, all Science Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs), practice papers, and solutions for Class 10 are available for free for students to get more marks school exams.
