CUET Legal Studies Sample Paper Set A

Question. Principle: Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without that person’s consent, moves that property with an intention to take it, is said to commit theft.
Facts: Y cuts down a tree on Z’s ground, with the intention of dishonestly taking it out of Z’s possession without Z’s consent. Y could not take away the tree.
a) Y can be prosecuted for theft
b) Y cannot be prosecuted for theft
c) Y can be prosecuted for attempt to theft
d) Y has neither committed theft nor attempted to commit theft

Answer : A

Question. Principle: Penal laws provide that whoever voluntarily has carnal intercourse against the order of nature with any man or woman, shall be punished for rape.
Facts: A Police Officer found a man engaged in carnal intercourse with an animal. The Police Officer arrested the man and produced him before the Court
a) Court will not punish the police officer
b) Court will punish the police officer
c) Court will not punish the man for rape
d) Court will punish the man for rape

Answer : C

Question. Principle: Acceptance of a proposal must be absolute and unqualified.
Facts: ‘A’ made a proposal to sell his motorcycle to ‘B’ for rupees 25,000/. ‘B’ agreed to buy it for rupees 24,000. ‘A’ sold his motorcycle to ‘C’ for 26,000 the next day. ‘B’ sues ‘A’ for damages.
a) ‘B’ will get the difference of rupees 1,000 only
b) ‘B’ will not get any damages from ‘A’
c) ‘B’ will get damages from ‘A’
d) ‘B’ can proceed against ‘C’

Answer : B

Question. Principle: It is a case of fraud where a party to a contract knows or believes a fact to be true, but conceals it actively from the other party with a view to induce that person to enter into the contract.
Facts: While taking a life insurance policy, in reply to questions by the insurance company during the inquiry into his proposal, Zameer deliberately concealed the fact of his medical treatment for a serious ailment, which he had undergone only a few weeks ago.
a) The concealment of fact by Zameer amounted to fraud.
b) The act of Zam eer am oun ted to innocent misrepresentation.
c) The act of Zam eer did not amount to anymisrepresentation.
d) The act of Zameer did not amount to fraud, as disclosing the fact would have resulted in exposure of his privacy.

Answer : A

Question. Principle: There are legal provisions to give authority to a person to use necessary force against an assailant or wrong-doer for the purpose of protecting one’s own body and property as also another’s body and property when immediate aid from the state machinery is not readily available; and in so doing he is not answerable in law for his deeds. 
Facts: X, a rich man was taking his morning walk. Due to the threat of robbers in the locality, he was carrying his pistol also. From the opposite direction, another person was coming with a ferocious looking dog. All of a sudden, the dog which was on a chain held by the owner, started barking at X. The owner of the dog called the dog to be calm. They crossed each other without any problem. But suddenly, the dog started barking again from a distance. X immediately took out his pistol. By seeing the pistol the dog stopped barking and started walking with the owner. However, X shot at the dog which died instantly. The owner of the dog files a complaint against X, which in due course reached the Magistrate Court. X pleads the right of private defence. Decide,
a) There was no imminent danger to X as the dog stopped barking and was walking with the owner. Hence, shooting it amounted to excessive use of the right of private defence and hence liable for killing the dog.
b) The right of private defence is available to persons against assailants or wrong-doers only and a dog does not fall in this category.
c) Shooting a fierce dog is not to be brought under the criminal law. So the case should be dismissed.
d) As there was no guarantee that the dog would not bark again, shooting it was a precautionary measure and hence within the right available to X under law.

Answer : A

Question. Principle: Under the Employees Compensation Act, 1923, an employer is liable to pay compensation to his workmen for injuries sustained by them by an accident arising out of and in the course of employment.
Facts: M, the Manager of SRK Industries asked his secretary S to submit a report at the Government Labour Office. ‘S’ submitted the report as directed. On his way back S met one of his classmates. He then decided to have a cup of tea together on a way side restaurant. Some time later, ‘S’ got a message from his office to report back as it was long time since he left the office. ‘S’ rushed back on his Motor Cycle. On his way back a Truck which was coming from a side road hit ‘S’. He was admitted in a nearby hospital with multiple injuries. He claims compensation under the Employees Compensation Act from his employer.

a) The Employer is liable to pay compensation as the accident took place arising out of and in the course of employment.
b) The Employer is not liable as the truck driver was negligent.
c) The Employer is not liable as he was admitted in a private hospital and not a Government Hospital.
d) The Employer is liable as S had to rush back to the office, because of the message from the office.

Answer : A

Question. Principle: When a person falsifies something with the intent to deceive another person or entity is forgery and is a criminal act. Changing or adding the signature on a document, deleting it, using or possessing the false writing is also considered forgery. In the case of writing/painting to fall under the definition, the material included must have been fabricated or altered significantly in order to represent something it is actually not.
Facts: David made a living travelling from city to city, selling paintings that he claimed were done by great artists. Since the artists’ signatures were in place, many people fell for them and purchased the paintings. One of these artists saw three of his alleged paintings in a City gallery containing his name. He knew these were not his works and he complained to the police. Police traced David and initiated legal proceedings. Is David guilty of any offence?
a) There is no point in taking legal action against David as the signature has not done any alteration to the art work.
b) David is guilty of forgery as the addition of the signature was with an intention to make people believe that those were the paintings of the great artists.
c) Those who buy the art pieces from David ought to have been careful in checking it and ensuring that they were originals before purchasing it.
d) David is not guilty of any offence as he was selling the art pieces for his living.

Answer : B

Question. Principle: If a party to a contract agrees to it under undue influence of any other party then the party under the undue influence may refuse to perform in accordance with the agreement.
Facts: A, a rich youngster became a member of a religious group and soon he was appointed by P the head of the group as his personal secretary. As per the rules of the group, all officials and staff of the group were supposed to stay in the group’s official premises itself. Some days later, A was asked by P to execute a Gift deed in favour of P, in which it was mentioned that all immovable properties in his name are being gifted to P. A was unwilling to execute the deed, but he was forcefully restrained by P and his body guards in P’s office and made A sign the gift deed. Soon after this A left the group and refused to hand over the property as agreed to in the gift deed. Is A’s action valid?
a) As Gift is also a contract, the consent of A was not obtained by P while executing the deed.
b) It is illegal for religious groups acquire property from its members.
c) A executed the deed, under compulsion and undue influence, and was right in withdrawing from the
contract.
d) As the gift deed was executed by A, he cannot refuse.

Answer : C

Question. Principle: Whoever takes away with him any minor less than sixteen years of age if a male, or less than eighteen years of age if a female, out of the custody of parents of such minor without the consent of such parents, is said to commit no offence.
Facts: ‘A’, a man, took away a girl below sixteen years to Mumbai without informing the parents of the girl.
a) ‘A’ committed no offence against the parents of the girl.
b) ‘A’ committed no offence against the girl as well as her parents.
c) ‘A’ committed an offence against the girl.
d) ‘A’ committed an offence against the girl as wellas her parents.

Answer : B

Question. Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of the right of private defence.
Facts: ‘A’, under the influence of madness, attempts to kill ‘B’. ‘B’ to save his life kills ‘A’.
a) ‘B’ has committed an offence.
b) ‘A’ has not committed an offence because he was mad.
c) ‘B’ has not committed any offence.
d) ‘A’ has committed the offence of attempt to murder.

Answer : C

Question. Principle: Negligence is actionable in law. In simple terms, negligence is the failure to take proper care over something.
Facts: A, a doctor, conducted a hysterectomy sincerely on B and left a small cotton swab inside the abdomen. As a consequence of which B developed some medical problems and had to undergo another surgery. Is A liable?
a) A is not liable as he did not foresee any consequences at the time of surgery.
b) As only a small swab was left in the abdomen, there was no negligence.
c) A is liable for the negligence as he failed to take proper care during the surgery.
d) Liability for negligence does not arise here as A performed the operation sincerely.

Answer : C

Question. Principle: When a person interferes with peaceful possession of another person without the permission of the person in possession of those premises, commits trespass to land.
Facts: ‘T’ just walked over the land of ‘P’ to reach his house as it was a short cut. ‘P’ had displayed a notice that it is not a thoroughfare. ‘P’ did not cause any damage to the land.
a) ‘T’ has not committed any trespass on the land of ‘P’.
b) ‘T’ has violated privacy of ‘P’
c) ‘T’ has committed trespass to land
d) ‘T’ has created nuisance for ‘P’

Answer : C

Question. Principle: A contract would be invalid and unlawful, if the contract is for an immoral or illegal purpose.
Facts: P, was a young and helpless widow, living on the pavement. R, a neighbour gave her a house, registered in her name, on the condition that she should allow R to keep his smuggled goods and drugs in her house. After the registration was done, according to the condition in the contract, R’s agents went to keep some packets in her house, she refused. R told her the condition under which the house was given to her. She still refused. Is P justified in her action?
a) As R was making the contract for illegal activities, P’s stand is valid in law.
b) R can take back the house by cancelling the transfer deed.
c) P is right as she did not like smuggled goods to be kept in her house.
d) P is not justified as she did not have the right to deny R’s request.

Answer : A

Question. Principle: When a person consented to an act to be done by another, he cannot claim any damages resulting from doing that act, provided the act done is the same for which consent is given.
Facts: ‘P’ submitted a written consent to a surgeon ‘S’ for undergoing a surgical operation for removal of appendicitis. The surgeon while doing surgery also removed the gall bladder of ‘A’.
a) ‘P’ is required to pay expenses for surgery for Appendicitis but not for gall bladder
b) ‘P’ is not bound to pay expenses of the surgery
c) ‘P’ can claim damages from ‘S’
d) ‘P’ cannot claim damages from ‘S’

Answer : C

Question. Principle: A master shall be liable for the fraudulent acts of his servants committed in the course of employment. However, the master and third parties must exercise reasonable care in this regard.
Facts: Rahul was a door to door salesman with United Manu facturing Com pany (the Com pany). The Company was manufacturing Water Purifiers. Rahul, along with the Company’s products, used to carry Water Purifiers manufactured by his Cousin in a local Industrial Estate. He used to sell the local product at a lower rate giving the impression to the buyers that he is offering a discount on the Company’s product. The Company Management detected the fraudulent activity of Rahul and dismissed him from service. Rahul still continued to carry on with his activity of selling the local product pretending that he was still a salesman of the Company. Several customers got cheated in this process. The fraud was noticed by the Company when the customers began to complain about the product. The customers demanded the Company to compensate their loss.
a) The Company is liable to compensate all the customers as it did not inform the public about Rahul’s fraudulent conduct and the subsequent dismissal.
b) The liability rests with the local manufacturer as it was a defective product.
c) The Company is not liable as Rahul was dismissed by the Company.
d) The Company is liable to the customers who purchased the local product from Rahul only till he remained as a salesman of the Company.

Answer : A

Question. Principle: A person is said to do a thing fraudulently, if he does that thing with intent to defraud, but not otherwise. Facts: ‘A’ occasionally hands over his ATM card to ‘B’ to withdraw money for ‘A’. On one occasion ‘B’ without the knowledge of ‘A’, uses ‘A’s ATM card to find out the balance in ‘A’s account, but does not withdraw any money.
a) ‘B’ has not committed the act fraudulently
b) ‘B’ has committed the act fraudulently
c) ‘B’ has committed misappropriation
d) ‘B’ has committed breach of faith

Answer : A

Question. Principle: Assault is causing bodily injury to another person by use of physical force.
Facts: Rustum while entering into compartment of a train raised his fist in anger towards a person Sheetal, just in front of him in the row, to get way to enter into the train first, but did not hit him. Rustum has:
a) Insulted Sheetal
b) Rightly showed his anger
c) Committed an assault on Sheetal
d) Not committed an assault on Sheetal

Answer : D

Question. Principle: Ownership in property consists of right to possess, right to use, right to alienate and right to exclude others. Sale is complete when property gets transferred from the seller to the buyer on sale.
Facts: ‘A’ sold his car to ‘B’. After this, ‘B’ requested ‘A’ to keep the car in his care on behalf ‘B’ for one month. ‘A’ agreed.
a) Sale will be automatically completed after the expiry of one month
b) Sale will be completed when ‘B’ will take the delivery of the car.
c) Sale of car is not complete
d) Sale of car is complete.

Answer : D

Question. Principle: When a person makes such a statement which lowers other person’s reputation in the estimation of other persons, is liable for committing defamation.
Facts: ‘A’ writes a letter to ‘B’ in which he uses abusive language against ‘B’ and also states that ‘B’ is a dishonest person. ‘A’ put the letter in a sealed envelope and delivered it to ‘B’.
a) ‘A’ has committed defamation
b) ‘A’ has not committed moral wrong
c) ‘A’ has not committed defamation
d) ‘A’ has committed a moral wrong

Answer : C

Question. Principle: The concept of natural justice is against bias and for the right to a fair hearing. While the term natural justice is often retained as a general concept, and it has largely been replaced and extended by the general ‘duty to act fairly’.
Fact: ‘X’, a male employee of a company was dismissed by the employer just on the basis of a complaint by ‘Y’, a female employee of the company that ‘X’ was trying to be too friendly with her and often requested her to accompany him to the canteen. Is the dismissal of ‘X’ valid?
a) No, because the employer did not give a chance to ‘X’ to explain his side, thereby violated the principles of natural justice.
b) Yes, moral law is antique and therefore, not app licable in m odern tim es, therefo re the termination is valid and no violations of the principles of natural justice occurred.
c) Yes, because men are not supposed to behave improperly with women and hence there is noviolation of any principles of law.
d) No, because in the modern times this type of behaviour is common.

Answer : A

Legal phrases are followed by four meanings. Choose the most appropriate option:

Question. In pari delicto:
a) Where the petitioner is at fault
b) Where both parties to a dispute are equally at fault
c) Where the lawyer is at fault
d) Where the judge is at fault

Answer : B

Question. Turpis arbiter’ means:
a) Inefficient lawyer
b) Corrupt judge
c) Inefficient judge
d) Corrupt prosecutor

Answer : B

Question. Caveat venditor:
a) Manufacturer beware
b) Buyer beware
c) Seller beware
d) Transporter beware

Answer : C

Question. ‘Animus possidendi’ means:
a) Intent to contract
b) Intention to harm
c) Intention to return
d) Intention to possess

Answer : D

Question. Malus animus:
a) Bad intention
b) Animal farm
c) Good intention
d) Physical force

Answer : A

Question. Lex loci:
a) Italian laws
b) Domestic laws
c) Latin regulations
d) Law of a place

Answer : D

Question. Per incuriam:
a) Mistaken decision
b) Supremacy of law
c) Mistaken identity
d) Supremacy of the Constitution

Answer : A

Question. ‘Sine die’ means:
a) Adjourned for the day and scheduled to meet next day again.
b) Adjourned for the day and meet after one week.
c) Adjourned without fixing any date for the next meeting.
d) Adjourned for the day and meet after one month.

Answer : C

Question. Bona vacantia:
a) Vacant land
b) Order of the court for eviction.
c) Goods that have no owner.
d) Vacant building.

Answer : C

Question. ‘Jus Gentium’ means:
a) Global administrative law
b) Law of Societies
c) Law among Nations
d) Global justice

Answer : C

Question. Pari passu:
a) On an unequal status
b) Supremacy of law
c) Diverse nature
d) On equal footing

Answer : D

Question. ‘Punctum Temporis’ means:
a) Temporary position
b) Point of time
c) Functional authority
d) Timely assistance

Answer : B

Question. Autrefois convict:
a) Formerly convicted
b) Doubtful conviction
c) Failed prosecution
d) To be convicted

Answer : A

Question. Lis pendens:
a) Facts of case proved
b) Decided case
c) Pending suit
d) No legal issues involved

Answer : C

Question. Faux pas:
a) Passage of time
b) Cheating
c) Pausing for a while
d) Tactless mistake

Answer : D

Choose the most appropriate option:

Question. Under the Constitution of India ‘Right to Pollution Free Environment’ has emerged as a fundamental
a) Freedom of movement under Article 19
b) Equality under Article 14
c) Life and personal liberty under Article 21
d) Conserve culture under Article 29

Answer : C

Question. ‘alibi’ means a plea by an accused person that he:
a) was present elsewhere.
b) remained in judicial custody.
c) underwent preventive detention.
d) was facing trial.

Answer : A

Question. ‘obiter dicta’ means:
a) Basis of judicial decision.
b) Judgment of a court in the case before it.
c) An opinion given by the court not necessary for the decision.
d) Direction by a judge.

Answer : C

Question. If an authority is holding information about another in a ‘fiduciary capacity’, the information under the Right to Information Act, 2005 may not be obtainable. ‘Fiduciary relationship’ is based on:
a) Authority
b) Trust
c) Law
d) Contract

Answer : B

Question. Under the Constitution of India restriction on freedom of religion cannot be placed on the ground of:
a) Morality
b) Social justice
c) Health
d) Public order

Answer : B

Question. As per law the minimum age for the marriage of a boy and a girl in India is:
a) 21 years in both cases
b) 18 years and 21 years respectively
c) 21 years and 18 years respectively
d) 18 years in both cases

Answer : C

Question. Which among the following was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the “heart and soul of the Constitution of India”?
a) Freedom of Religion
b) Right to Constitutional Remedies
c) Right to equality
d) Right to move throughout the territory of India

Answer : B

Question. The Supreme Court of India has struck down the Constitution (Ninety-ninth Amendment) Act, 2014 as unconstitutional. It is related to :
a) Land Exchange between India and Bangladesh
b) National Judicial Appointment Commission
c) Religious Rights
d) Jallikattu (Bull Fighting)

Answer : B

Question. ‘lis pendens’ means:
a) Awaited information.
b) On the basis of evidence.
c) Decision awaited
d) A pending suit.

Answer : D

Question. Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy under Part IV of the Constitution of India?
a) Provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.
b) Organisation of village panchayats.
c) Promotion of adult education.
d) Promotion of international peace and security.

Answer : C

Question. ‘persona non grata’ means:
a) Non-performance of promise
b) Non-person
c) An unacceptable person
d) Ungrateful person

Answer : C

Question. The object of which one of the following writs is to prevent a person to hold public office which he is not legally entitled to hold?
a) Mandamus
b) Quo warranto
c) Certiorari
d) Prohibition

Answer : B

Question. Which Indian State has prescribed minimum educational qualification for candidates contesting panchayat polls?
a) Gujarat
b) Kerala
c) Haryana
d) Punjab

Answer : C

Question. Which among the following does not belong to the ‘right to freedom of religion’?
a) Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion.
b) Freedom from attending religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions.
c) Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.
d) Freedom of speech and expression.

Answer : D

Question. ‘audi alteram partem’ means:
a) Not connected to facts
b) Following the substantive law
c) A transferee cannot retransfer
d) Giving opportunity of hearing of the other side

Answer : D